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adell [148]
2 years ago
15

A 10 kg wagon is accelerated by a constant force of 60 N from an initial velocity of 5.0 m/s to a final velocity of 11 m/s. What

is the impulse received by the wagon? a)15 N s b)60 N s c)17 N s d)70 N s
Physics
1 answer:
Readme [11.4K]2 years ago
3 0
The answer is 274774
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Which wave has a greater frequency?
DedPeter [7]
The wave diagramed in blue.
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Boxes A and B are being pulled to the right on a frictionless surface. Box A has a larger mass than B. How do the two tension fo
Vlad1618 [11]

Answer:

Tension T1 is less than tension T2.

T1 < T2

Explanation:

According to given data,

mass of box A ( mA) is grater than mass of box B (mB)

we can write,

m(A) > m(B)

Newton's second law states that:

Tension of object is directly proportional to the mass of the system.

T ∝ m

here Boxes A and B are being pulled to the right on a frictionless surface,

so Tension T1 generates due to the mass of box A m(A)

and Tension T2 arises due to mass of the system m(A) + m(B)

Thus tension T1 will be less than tension T2

T1 < T2

learn more about Tension force here:

<u>brainly.com/question/13175014</u>

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8 0
2 years ago
Which property of sound waves decreases as the square of the distance from the source increases?
AleksAgata [21]
A. Pitch









okay bye have a nice day



From: Charli
5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Water with a volume flow rate of 0.001 m3/s, flows inside a horizontal pipe with diameter of 1.2 m. If the pipe length is 10m an
galben [10]

Answer:

\triangle P=1.95*10^{-4}

Explanation:

Mass m=0.001

Diameter d=1.2m

Length l=10m

Generally the equation for Volume flow rate is mathematically given by

 Q=AV

 V=\frac{Q}{\pi/4D^2}

 V=\frac{0.001}{\pi/4(1.2)^2}

 V=8.84*10^{-4}

Generally the equation for Friction factor is mathematically given by

 F=\frac{64}{Re}

Where Re

Re=Reynolds Number

 Re=\frac{pVD}{\mu}

 Re=\frac{1000*8.84*10^{-4}*1.2}{1.002*10^{-3}}

 Re=1040

Therefore

 F=\frac{64}{Re}

 F=\frac{64}{1040}

 F=0.06

Generally the equation for Friction factor is mathematically given by

 Head loss=\frac{fLv^2}{2dg}

 H=\frac{0.06*10*(8.9*10^-4)^2}{2*1.2*9.81}

 H=19.9*10^{-9}

Where

H=\frac{\triangle P}{\rho g}

\triangle P=\frac{19.9*10^{-9}}{10^3*(9.81)}

\triangle P=H*\rho g

\triangle P=1.95*10^{-4}

 

6 0
3 years ago
The spaceship Intergalactica lands on the surface of the uninhabited Pink Planet, which orbits a rather average star in the dist
Sidana [21]

Complete Question

The spaceship Intergalactica lands on the surface of the uninhabited Pink Planet, which orbits a rather average star in the distant Garbanzo Galaxy. A scouting party sets out to explore. The party's leader–a physicist, naturally–immediately makes a determination of the acceleration due to gravity on the Pink Planet's surface by means of a simple pendulum of length 1.08m. She sets the pendulum swinging, and her collaborators carefully count 101 complete cycles of oscillation during 2.00×102 s. What is the result? acceleration due to gravity:acceleration due to gravity: m/s2

Answer:

The acceleration due to gravity is  g = 167.2 \ m/s^2  

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The length of the simple pendulum is L = 1.081.08 \ m

      The number of cycles is  N =  101

       The time take is  t =  2.00 *10^{2 \ }s

Generally the period of this oscillation is mathematically evaluated as

         T = \frac{N}{t }

substituting values

         T = \frac{101}{2.0*10^2 }

        T = 0.505 \  s

The period of this oscillation is mathematically represented  as

               T = 2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g} }

making g the subject of the formula we have

              g = \frac{L}{[\frac{T}{2 \pi } ]^2 }

              g = \frac{4 \pi ^2 L }{T^2 }

Substituting values

               g = \frac{4 * 3.142 ^2  * 1.08 }{505.505^2 }

               g = \frac{4 * 3.142 ^2  * 1.08 }{0.505^2 }  

              g = 167.2 \ m/s^2  

7 0
3 years ago
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