
Hi Pupil Here's Your answer :::
➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡➡
An object moving with constant speed can be accelerated if direction of motion changes. For example, an object moving with a constant speed in a circular path has an acceleration because its direction of motion changes continuously.
⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅⬅
Hope this Helps . . . . . . . . .
Usually start on the internet, there is bound to be something or a form of information on it.
Observe that the object below moves in the negative direction with a changing velocity. An object which moves in the negative direction has a negative velocity. If the object is slowing down then its acceleration vector is directed in the opposite direction as its motion (in this case, a positive acceleration). The dot diagram shows that each consecutive dot is not the same distance apart (i.e., a changing velocity). The position-time graph shows that the slope is changing (meaning a changing velocity) and negative (meaning a negative velocity). The velocity-time graph shows a line with a positive (upward) slope (meaning that there is a positive acceleration); the line is located in the negative region of the graph (corresponding to a negative velocity). The acceleration-time graph shows a horizontal line in the positive region of the graph (meaning a positive acceleration).
I don't know how I can show you the figure
Answer:
charge on each
Q1 = 2.06 ×
C
Q2 = 7.23 ×
C
when force were attractive
Q1 = 1.07 ×
C
Q2 = -1.39 ×
C
Explanation:
given data
total charge = 93.0 μC
apart distance r = 1.14 m
force exerted F = 10.3 N
to find out
What is the charge on each and What if the force were attractive
solution
we know that force is repulsive mean both sphere have same charge
so total charge on two non conducting sphere is
Q1 + Q2 = 93.0 μC = 93 ×
C
and
According to Coulomb's law force between two sphere is
Force F =
.........1
Q1Q2 = 
here F is force and r is apart distance and k is 9 ×
N-m²/C² put all value we get
Q1Q2 = 
Q1Q2 = 1.49 ×
C²
and
we have Q2 = 93 ×
C - Q1
put here value
Q1² - 93 ×
Q1 + 1.49 ×
= 0
solve we get
Q1 = 2.06 ×
C
and
Q1Q2 = 1.49 ×
2.06 ×
Q2 = 1.49 ×
Q2 = 7.23 ×
C
and
if force is attractive we get here
Q1Q2 = - 1.49 ×
C²
then
Q1² - 93 ×
Q1 - 1.49 ×
= 0
we get here
Q1 = 1.07 ×
C
and
Q1Q2 = - 1.49 ×
2.06 ×
Q2 = - 1.49 × 
Q2 = -1.39 ×
C