(a) The ball's height <em>y</em> at time <em>t</em> is given by
<em>y</em> = (20 m/s) sin(40º) <em>t</em> - 1/2 <em>g t</em> ²
where <em>g</em> = 9.80 m/s² is the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity. Solve <em>y</em> = 0 for <em>t</em> :
0 = (20 m/s) sin(40º) <em>t</em> - 1/2 <em>g t</em> ²
0 = <em>t</em> ((20 m/s) sin(40º) - 1/2 <em>g t</em> )
<em>t</em> = 0 or (20 m/s) sin(40º) - 1/2 <em>g t</em> = 0
The first time refers to where the ball is initially launched, so we omit that solution.
(20 m/s) sin(40º) = 1/2 <em>g t</em>
<em>t</em> = (40 m/s) sin(40º) / <em>g</em>
<em>t</em> ≈ 2.6 s
(b) At its maximum height, the ball has zero vertical velocity. In the vertical direction, the ball is in free fall and only subject to the downward acceleration <em>g</em>. So
0² - ((20 m/s) sin(40º))² = 2 (-<em>g</em>) <em>y</em>
where <em>y</em> in this equation refers to the maximum height of the ball. Solve for <em>y</em> :
<em>y</em> = ((20 m/s) sin(40º))² / (2<em>g</em>)
<em>y</em> ≈ 8.4 m
Mass is the amount of matter in an object whereas weight is the force of gravity acting on the mass of an object. Different planets exert a different force of gravity on an object-meaning that an object's weight will change depending on the force of gravity acting on it, but it's mad will remain unchanged.
At -40.
-40 gives the same reading for Fahrenheit and Celsius scale.
Speed is equal to distance traveled divided by the time. So it's 3.5 m/s
The statement about pointwise convergence follows because C is a complete metric space. If fn → f uniformly on S, then |fn(z) − fm(z)| ≤ |fn(z) − f(z)| + |f(z) − fm(z)|, hence {fn} is uniformly Cauchy. Conversely, if {fn} is uniformly Cauchy, it is pointwise Cauchy and therefore converges pointwise to a limit function f. If |fn(z)−fm(z)| ≤ ε for all n,m ≥ N and all z ∈ S, let m → ∞ to show that |fn(z)−f(z)|≤εforn≥N andallz∈S. Thusfn →f uniformlyonS.
2. This is immediate from (2.2.7).
3. We have f′(x) = (2/x3)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, and f′(0) = limh→0(1/h)e−1/h2 = 0. Since f(n)(x) is of the form pn(1/x)e−1/x2 for x ̸= 0, where pn is a polynomial, an induction argument shows that f(n)(0) = 0 for all n. If g is analytic on D(0,r) and g = f on (−r,r), then by (2.2.16), g(z) =
