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goldfiish [28.3K]
2 years ago
11

Help meh in this question plzzz ​

Physics
1 answer:
iragen [17]2 years ago
5 0

The Moment of Inertia of the Disc is represented by I = \frac{15}{32}\cdot M\cdot R^{2}. (Correct answer: A)

Let suppose that the Disk is a Rigid Body whose mass is uniformly distributed. The Moment of Inertia of the element is equal to the Moment of Inertia of the entire Disk minus the Moment of Inertia of the Hole, that is to say:

I = I_{D} - I_{H} (1)

Where:

  • I_{D} - Moment of inertia of the Disk.
  • I_{H} - Moment of inertia of the Hole.

Then, this formula is expanded as follows:

I = \frac{1}{2}\cdot M\cdot R^{2} - \frac{1}{2}\cdot m\cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\cdot R^{2} \right) (1b)

Dimensionally speaking, Mass is directly proportional to the square of the Radius, then we derive the following expression for the Mass removed by the Hole (m):

\frac{m}{M} = \frac{R^{2}}{4\cdot R^{2}}

m = \frac{1}{2}\cdot M

And the resulting equation is:

I = \frac{1}{2}\cdot M\cdot R^{2} -\frac{1}{2}\cdot \left(\frac{1}{4}\cdot M \right) \cdot \left(\frac{1}{4}\cdot R^{2} \right)

I = \frac{1}{2} \cdot M\cdot R^{2} - \frac{1}{32}\cdot M\cdot R^{2}

I = \frac{15}{32}\cdot M\cdot R^{2}

The moment of inertia of the Disc is represented by I = \frac{15}{32}\cdot M\cdot R^{2}. (Correct answer: A)

Please see this question related to Moments of Inertia: brainly.com/question/15246709

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MakcuM [25]

<h2><u>Projectile</u><u> </u><u>motion</u><u>:</u></h2>

<em>If</em><em> </em><em>an</em><em> </em><em>object is given an initial velocity</em><em> </em><em>in any direction and then allowed</em><em> </em><em>to travel freely under gravity</em><em>, </em><em>it</em><em> </em><em>is</em><em> </em><em>called a projectile motion</em><em>. </em>

It is basically 3 types.

  1. horizontally projectile motion
  2. oblique projectile motion
  3. included plane projectile motion

7 0
3 years ago
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Select the option that best summarizes the reason for the use of position-time graphs when studying physical science. (1 point)
Sedaia [141]

The position-time graphs show the relationship between the position of an object (shown on the y-axis) and the time (shown on the x-axis) to show velocity.

<h3>What is velocity?</h3>

Velocity is a vector quantity that tells the distance an object has traveled over a period of time.

Displacement is a vector quality showing total length of an area traveled by a particular object.

Imagine a time-position graph where the velocity of an object is constant. What will be observed on the graph concerning the slope of the line segment as well as the velocity of the object?

The slope of the line is equal to zero and the object will be stationary.

The position-time graphs show the relationship between the position of an object (shown on the y-axis) and the time (shown on the x-axis) to show velocity.

To learn more about velocity refer to the link

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4 0
1 year ago
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Calculate the Force of Gravity acting on an object that has a mass of 1.3 kg. The object is on Earth so use 9.8m/s2 for the acce
sweet-ann [11.9K]
To calculate the gravitational force acting on an object given the mass and the acceleration due to gravity, use the following formula.

Fg = m • g
Fg = 1.3 kg • 9.8 m/s^2
Fg = 12.74 N or about 12.7 N.

The solution is C. 12.7 N.
7 0
3 years ago
7.22 Ignoring reflection at the air–water boundary, if the amplitude of a 1 GHz incident wave in air is 20 V/m at the water surf
Serga [27]

Answer:

z = 0.8 (approx)

Explanation:

given,

Amplitude of 1 GHz incident wave in air = 20 V/m

Water has,

μr = 1

at 1 GHz, r = 80 and σ = 1 S/m.

depth of water when amplitude is down to  1 μV/m

Intrinsic impedance of air = 120 π  Ω

Intrinsic impedance of  water = \dfrac{120\pi}{\epsilon_r}

Using equation to solve the problem

  E(z) = E_0 e^{-\alpha\ z}

E(z) is the amplitude under water at z depth

E_o is the amplitude of wave on the surface of water

z is the depth under water

\alpha = \dfrac{\sigma}{2}\sqrt{\dfrac{(120\pi)^2}{\Epsilon_r}}

\alpha = \dfrac{1}{2}\sqrt{\dfrac{(120\pi)^2}{80}}

\alpha =21.07\ Np/m

now ,

  1 \times 10^{-6} = 20 e^{-21.07\times z}

  e^{21.07\times z}= 20\times 10^{6}

taking ln both side

21.07 x z = 16.81

z = 0.797

z = 0.8 (approx)

5 0
3 years ago
In an LC circuit at one time the charge stored by the capacitor is 10 mC and the current is 3.0 A. If the frequency of the circu
Ronch [10]

Answer:

i_2=3.61\ A

Explanation:

<u>LC Circuit</u>

It's a special circuit made of three basic elements: The AC source, a capacitor, and an inductor. The charge, current, and voltage are oscillating when there is an interaction between the electric and magnetic fields of the elements. The following variables will be used for the formulas:

q, q_1, q_2 = charge of the capacitor in any time t, t_1, t_2

q_o = initial charge of the capacitor

\omega=angular frequency of the circuit

i, i_1, i_2 = current through the circuit in any time t, t_1, t_2

The charge in an LC circuit is given by

q(t) = q_0 \, cos (\omega t )

The current is the derivative of the charge

\displaystyle i(t) = \frac{dq(t)}{dt} = - \omega q_0 \, sin(\omega t).

We are given

q_1=10\ mc=0.01\ c, i_1=3\ A,\ q_2=6\ mc=0.006\ c\ ,\ f=\frac{1000}{4\pi}

It means that

q(t_1) = q_0 \, cos (\omega t_1 )=q_1\ .......[eq 1]

i(t_1) = - \omega q_0 \, sin(\omega t_1)=i_1.........[eq 2]

From eq 1:

\displaystyle cos (\omega t_1 )=\frac{q_1}{q_0}

From eq 2:

\displaystyle sin(\omega t_1)=-\frac{i_1}{\omega q_0}

Squaring and adding the last two equations, and knowing that

sin^2x+cos^2x=1

\displaystyle \left ( \frac{q_1}{q_0} \right )^2+\left ( \frac{i_1}{\omega q_0} \right )^2=1

Operating

\displaystyle \omega^2q_1^2+i_1^2=\omega^2q_o^2

Solving for q_o

\displaystyle q_o=\frac{\sqrt{\omega^2q_1^2+i_1^2}}{\omega}

Now we know the value of q_0, we repeat the procedure of eq 1 and eq 2, but now at the second time t_2, and solve for i_2

\displaystyle \omega^2q_2^2+i_2^2=\omega^2q_o^2

Solving for i_2

\displaystyle i_2=w\sqrt{q_o^2-q_2^2}

Now we replace the given values. We'll assume that the placeholder is a pi for the frequency, i.e.

\displaystyle f=\frac{1}{4\pi}\ KHz

w=2\pi f=500\ rad/s

\displaystyle q_o=\frac{\sqrt{(500)^2(0.01)^2+3^2}}{500}

q_0=0.01166\ c

Finally

\displaystyle i_2=500\sqrt{0.01166^2-.006^2}

i_2=5\ A

3 0
3 years ago
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