All categories

3 years ago

Draw perpendicular lines based on the info in the image.

Engineering

1 answer:

Over [174]3 years ago

5 0

Wait let me try it…..

You might be interested in

Three tool materials (high-speed steel, cemented carbide, and ceramic) are to be compared for the same turning operation on a ba

Tpy6a [65]

Answer:

Among all three tools, the ceramic tool is taking the least time for the production of a batch, however, machining from the HSS tool is taking the highest time.

Explanation:

The optimum cutting speed for the minimum cost

$V_{opt}= \frac{C}{\left[\left(T_c+\frac{C_e}{C_m}\right)\left(\frac{1}{n}-1\right)\right]^n}\;\cdots(i)$

Where,

C,n = Taylor equation parameters

$T_h$ =Tool changing time in minutes

$C_e$ =Cost per grinding per edge

$C_m$ = Machine and operator cost per minute

On comparing with the Taylor equation $VT^n=C$ ,

Tool life,

$T= \left[ \left(T_t+\frac{C_e}{C_m}\right)\left(\frac{1}{n}-1\right)\right]}\;\cdots(ii)$

Given that,

Cost of operator and machine time $=\$40/hr=\$0.667/min$

Batch setting time = 2 hr

Part handling time: $T_h=2.5$ min

Part diameter: $D=73 mm$ $=73\times 10^{-3} m$

Part length: $l=250 mm=250\times 10^{-3} m$

Feed: $f=0.30 mm/rev= 0.3\times 10^{-3} m/rev$

Depth of cut: $d=3.5 mm$

For the HSS tool:

Tool cost is $20 and it can be ground and reground 15 times and the grinding= $2/grind.

So, $C_e=$ $\$20/15+2=\$3.33/edge$

Tool changing time, $T_t=3$ min.

$C= 80 m/min$

$n=0.130$

(a) From equation (i), cutting speed for the minimum cost:

$V_{opt}= \frac {80}{\left[ \left(3+\frac{3.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.13}-1\right)\right]^{0.13}}$

$\Rightarrow 47.7$ m/min

(b) From equation (ii), the tool life,

$T=\left(3+\frac{3.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.13}-1\right)\right]}$

$\Rightarrow T=53.4$ min

(c) Cycle time: $T_c=T_h+T_m+\frac{T_t}{n_p}$

where,

$T_m=$ Machining time for one part

$n_p=$ Number of pieces cut in one tool life

$T_m= \frac{l}{fN}$ min, where $N=\frac{V_{opt}}{\pi D}$ is the rpm of the spindle.

$\Rightarrow T_m= \frac{\pi D l}{fV_{opt}}$

$\Rightarrow T_m=\frac{\pi \times 73 \times 250\times 10^{-6}}{0.3\times 10^{-3}\times 47.7}=4.01 min/pc$

So, the number of parts produced in one tool life

$n_p=\frac {T}{T_m}$

$\Rightarrow n_p=\frac {53.4}{4.01}=13.3$

Round it to the lower integer

$\Rightarrow n_p=13$

So, the cycle time

$T_c=2.5+4.01+\frac{3}{13}=6.74$ min/pc

(d) Cost per production unit:

$C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow C_c=0.667\times6.74+\frac{3.33}{13}=\$4.75/pc$

(e) Total time to complete the batch= Sum of setup time and production time for one batch

$=2\times60+ {50\times 6.74}{50}=457 min=7.62 hr$ .

(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

$=\frac{50\times4.01}{457}=0.4387=43.87\%$

Now, for the cemented carbide tool:

Cost per edge,

$C_e=$ $\$8/6=\$1.33/edge$

Tool changing time, $T_t=1min$

$C= 650 m/min$

$n=0.30$

(a) Cutting speed for the minimum cost:

$V_{opt}= \frac {650}{\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.3}-1\right)\right]^{0.3}}=363m/min$ [from(i)]

(b) Tool life,

$T=\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.3}-1\right)\right]=7min$ [from(ii)]

(c) Cycle time:

$T_c=T_h+T_m+\frac{T_t}{n_p}$

$T_m= \frac{\pi D l}{fV_{opt}}$

$\Rightarrow T_m=\frac{\pi \times 73 \times 250\times 10^{-6}}{0.3\times 10^{-3}\times 363}=0.53min/pc$

$n_p=\frac {7}{0.53}=13.2$

$\Rightarrow n_p=13$ [ nearest lower integer]

So, the cycle time

$T_c=2.5+0.53+\frac{1}{13}=3.11 min/pc$

(d) Cost per production unit:

$C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow C_c=0.667\times3.11+\frac{1.33}{13}=\$2.18/pc$

(e) Total time to complete the batch $=2\times60+ {50\times 3.11}{50}=275.5 min=4.59 hr$ .

(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

$=\frac{50\times0.53}{275.5}=0.0962=9.62\%$

Similarly, for the ceramic tool:

$C_e=$ $\$10/6=\$1.67/edge$

$T_t-1min$

$C= 3500 m/min$

$n=0.6$

(a) Cutting speed:

$V_{opt}= \frac {3500}{\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.67}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.6}-1\right)\right]^{0.6}}$

$\Rightarrow V_{opt}=2105 m/min$

(b) Tool life,

$T=\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.67}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.6}-1\right)\right]=2.33 min$

(c) Cycle time:

$T_c=T_h+T_m+\frac{T_t}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow T_m=\frac{\pi \times 73 \times 250\times 10^{-6}}{0.3\times 10^{-3}\times 2105}=0.091 min/pc$

$n_p=\frac {2.33}{0.091}=25.6$

$\Rightarrow n_p=25 pc/tool\; life$

So,

$T_c=2.5+0.091+\frac{1}{25}=2.63 min/pc$

(d) Cost per production unit:

$C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}$

$\Rightarrow C_c=0.667\times2.63+\frac{1.67}{25}=$1.82/pc$

(e) Total time to complete the batch

$=2\times60+ {50\times 2.63}=251.5 min=4.19 hr$ .

(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

$=\frac{50\times0.091}{251.5}=0.0181=1.81\%$

3 0

4 years ago

A manometer containing a fluid with a density of 60 lbm/ft3 is attached to a tank filled with air. If the gage pressure of the a

8090 [49]

Answer:

The fluid level difference in the manometer arm = 22.56 ft.

Explanation:

Assumption: The fluid in the manometer is incompressible, that is, its density is constant.

The fluid level difference between the two arms of the manometer gives the gage pressure of the air in the tank.

And P(gage) = ρgh

ρ = density of the manometer fluid = 60 lbm/ft³

g = acceleration due to gravity = 32.2 ft/s²

ρg = 60 × 32.2 = 1932 lbm/ft²s²

ρg = 1932 lbm/ft²s² × 1lbf.s²/32.2lbm.ft = 60 lbf/ft³

h = fluid level difference between the two arms of the manometer = ?

P(gage) = 9.4 psig = 9.4 × 144 = 1353.6 lbf/ft²

1353.6 = ρg × h = 60 lbf/ft³ × h

h = 1353.6/60 = 22.56 ft

A diagrammatic representation of this setup is presented in the attached image.

Hope this helps!

5 0

4 years ago

A pipeline (NPS = 14 in; schedule = 80) has a length of 200 m. Water (15℃) is flowing at 0.16 m3/s. What is the pipe head loss f

dangina [55]

Answer:

Head loss is 1.64

Explanation:

Given data:

Length (L) = 200 m

Discharge (Q) = 0.16 m3/s

According to table of nominal pipe size , for schedule 80 , NPS 14, pipe has diameter (D)= 12.5 in or 31.8 cm 0.318 m

We know, $head\ loss = \frac{f L V^2}{( 2 g D)}$

where, f = Darcy friction factor

V = flow velocity

g = acceleration due to gravity

We know, flow rate Q = A x V

solving for V

$V = \frac{Q}{A}$

$= \frac{0.16}{\frac{\pi}{4} (0.318)^2} = 2.015 m/s$

obtained Darcy friction factor

calculate Reynold number (Re) ,

$Re = \frac{\rho V D}{\mu}$

where, $\rho$ = density of water

$\mu$ = Dynamic viscosity of water at 15 degree C = 0.001 Ns/m2

so reynold number is

$Re = \frac{1000\times 2.015\times 0.318}{0.001}$

= 6.4 x 10^5

For Schedule 80 PVC pipes , roughness (e) is 0.0015 mm

Relative roughness (e/D) = 0.0015 / 318 = 0.00005

from Moody diagram, for Re = 640000 and e/D = 0.00005 , Darcy friction factor , f = 0.0126

Therefore head loss is

$HL = \frac{0.0126 (200)(2.015)^2}{( 2 \times 9.81 \times 0.318)}$

HL = 1.64 m

7 0

3 years ago

Transformation is the change of one energy form to another.<br> O True<br> O False

Doss [256]

I think is true try that

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

I need the solution

Alinara [238K]

Answer:

Isn't the answer written upside down in the sentence?

Explanation:

7 0

2 years ago