Answer: alpha particle. i think
Explanation:
Answer:
V = 9.682 × 10^(-6) V
Explanation:
Given data
thick = 190 µm
wide = 4.20 mm
magnitude B = 0.78 T
current i = 32 A
to find out
Calculate V
solution
we know v formula that is
V = magnitude× current / (no of charge carriers ×thickness × e
here we know that number of charge carriers/unit volume for copper = 8.47 x 10^28 electrons/m³
so put all value we get
V = magnitude× current / (no of charge carriers ×thickness × e
V = 0.78 × 32 / (8.47 x 10^28 × 190 × 1.602 x 10^(-19)
V = 9.682 × 10^(-6) V
Answer:
6.67×10¯⁹ A
Explanation:
From the question given above, the following data were obtained:
Quantity of electricity (Q) = 2 μC
Time (t) = 5 mins
Current (I) =?
Next, we shall convert 2 μC to C. This can be obtained as follow:
1 μC = 1×10¯⁶ C
Therefore,
2 μC = 2 μC × 1×10¯⁶ C / 1 μC
2 μC = 2×10¯⁶ C
Next, we shall convert 5 mins to seconds. This can be obtained as follow:
1 min = 60 secs
Therefore,
5 min = 5 min × 60 sec / 1 min
5 mins = 300 s
Finally, we shall determine the current in the circuit. This can be obtained as follow:
Quantity of electricity (Q) = 2×10¯⁶ C
Time (t) = 300 s
Current (I) =?
Q = It
2×10¯⁶ = I × 300
Divide both side by 300
I = 2×10¯⁶ / 300
I = 6.67×10¯⁹ A
Thus, the current in the circuit is 6.67×10¯⁹ A
Answer:
An electric current flows through the electromagnet's wire coil and generates a magnetic field, which produces a force on the beater bar.
Explanation:
3 rd one because I had this on my test
