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artcher [175]
2 years ago
9

Analyze the example of this band saw wheel and axle. The diameter of the wheel is 14 inches. The diameter of the axle that drive

s the wheel is 3/4 inch. The actual force needed to cut through a one-inch-thick softwood board is 1.75 pounds. Consider the efficiency of this band saw to be 22%.
Questions: Calculate ideal mechanical advantage when the effort force is applied to the axle.

Questions: considering the efficiency calculate the actual mechanical advantage of the wheel and axle.

Questions: If you used the same wheel and axle in a different way and applied effort force to the wheel to drive the axle, what is the ideal mechanical advantage of the wheel and axle?
Engineering
1 answer:
Kazeer [188]2 years ago
5 0

The answer for the ideal mechanical advantage and actual mechanical advantage for the different scenarios are;

A) Ideal Mechanical Advantage = 18.67

B) Actual Mechanical Advantage = 4.1067

We are given;

Input distance; The diameter of the wheel; d_w = 14 inches

Output distance; The diameter of the axle that drives the wheel; d_a = 3/4 inches

The force needed to cut a one-inch-thick softwood board; F = 1.75 pounds

The efficiency of the band saw; η = 22% = 0.22

A) Formula for Mechanical advantage is;

M.A = Force output/Force input = (Input distance)/(Output distance)

Thus;

Ideal mechanical advantage = 14/(3/4)

Ideal mechanical advantage = 18.67

B) Now, we are given that efficiency of the band saw is η = 22% = 0.22.

Thus using the mechanical advantage formula above;

Actual mechanical advantage = 0.22 × Expected output

Actual mechanical advantage = 0.22 × 18.67

Actual mechanical advantage ≈ 4.1067

Read more about Mechanical Advantage at; brainly.com/question/18345299

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Qd = 94.305 × 10^{-6} m³/s

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  • <u>0.59</u>

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The <em>batch</em> is <em>rejected</em> if any of the <em>random samples are found defective</em>, or, what is the same, it will be accepted only if all 15 samples are good.

The probability that none be defective is the same probability that all the samples are good. Thus, start to calculate the probability that the batch is accepted.

The probability that the first sample is good is 214 /225, because there are 225 - 11 = 214 good samples in 225 doses.

The probability that the second samples is good too is 213/224, because there is 1 less good sample, in the 224 remaining samples.

By the same process, you conclude that the consecutive probabilities of selecting a good sample are: 212/223, 211/222, 210/221, . . . up to 199/211.

The joint probability of all the samples are good is the product of each probability:

\frac{214}{225}\cdot\frac{213}{224}\cdot\frac{212}{223}\cdot\frac{211}{222}\cdot\frac{210}{221}\cdot\frac{209}{220}\cdot\frac{208}{219}\cdot\frac{207}{218}\cdot\frac{206}{217}\cdot\frac{205}{216}\cdot\frac{204}{215}\cdot\frac{203}{214}\cdot\frac{202}{213}\cdot\frac{201}{212}\cdot\frac{200}{211}\cdot\frac{199}{210}

The result is: 0.41278 ≈ 0.41

The conclusion is that the probability that all the samples are good and the batch is accepted is 0.41.

Therefore, <em>the probability that the batch is rejected</em> is 1 - 0.41 = 0.59.

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