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3 years ago

IF YOUR GOOD AT SCIENCE THEN PLEASE ANSWER THIS ASAP I WILL MARK YOU THE BRAINLIEST

Physics

1 answer:

MakcuM [25]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

A: Copper is a good conductor

Explanation:

For an electrical current to flow through something, the main power source has to fight against the resistivity. Copper wire has a very low level of resistivity making it an excellent conductor. Basically, copper is super bendy and flexible, electricity.

Fun fact, sinc humans are also super bendy and essentially big sacs of all things wet and watery, we're considered to also be excellent conductors. We also have very intricate circuitry and a lot of natural electricity so basically, we were made for it, especially since the body already used little bits of electricity to function.

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Arrange the planets from strongest magnetic field to weakest magnetic field. Jupiter Earth Venus

Karo-lina-s [1.5K]

The planets from strongest magnetic field to weakest magnetic field is Jupiter > Earth > Venus.

Magnetic fields are generated by the movement of magnetic material located in side the planet, usually at the core.

Jupiter, the biggest planet in our planetary system, likewise has the biggest magnetic field, producing a magnetosphere bigger than the Sun. It`s magnetic field is created by its fast rotation of 9.8 Earth hours. Dissimilar to Earth, Jupiter`s magnetic field is not produced by its core yet by interaction in its external core, which comprises of liquid metallic hydrogen.

Earth's magnetic field is produced by liquid metal at the center and Earth's fast pivot of 24 hours creates enough movement of the liquid to animate a magnetic field. While Venus does not have a magnetic field, likely on account of it's slow rate at around 243 Earth days, it's as yet shielded from sun oriented breezes utilizing an alternate kind of magnetism.

Therefore, the Jupiter have magnetic fields much stronger than that of the Earth and Venus.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Charlie is investigating friction. She will use the same amount of force to push two wooden balls across two level surfaces. The

Zanzabum

D the distance for trial 3 will be greater than trial 4

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A crate on a motorized cart starts from rest and moves with a constant eastward acceleration of a = 2.20 m/s2. A worker assists

trasher [3.6K]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given

acceleration a =2.2 m/s^2

Force F(t) is given by

F(t)=5.40 t N/s

Power supplied by this force at different time t is given by

Power $=F\cdot v$

velocity at any instant t is given by

v=at

Power $=5.40 t\cdot 2.2 t$

Power $=11.88 t^2$

at t=1 s

Power =11.88 W

at t=2 s

Power $=11.88\times 4=47.52$

at =4 s

Power $=11.88 \times 16=190.08$

6 0

3 years ago

Find the moments of inertia Ix, Iy, I0 for a lamina that occupies the part of the disk x2 y2 ≤ 36 in the first quadrant if the d

Tasya [4]

Answer:

I(x) = 1444×k × ${\pi}$

I(y) = 1444×k × ${\pi}$

I(o) = 3888×k × ${\pi}$

Explanation:

Given data

function = x^2 + y^2 ≤ 36

function = x^2 + y^2 ≤ 6^2

to find out

the moments of inertia Ix, Iy, Io

solution

first we consider the polar coordinate (a,θ)

and polar is directly proportional to a²

so p = k × a²

so that

x = a cosθ

y = a sinθ

dA = adθda

I(x) = ∫y²pdA

take limit 0 to 6 for a and o to $\pi /2$ for θ

I(x) = $\int_{0}^{6}\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ y²p dA

I(x) = $\int_{0}^{6}\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ (a sinθ)²(k × a²) adθda

I(x) = k $\int_{0}^{6}a^(5)$ da × $\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ (sin²θ)dθ

I(x) = k $\int_{0}^{6}a^(5)$ da × $\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ (1-cos2θ)/2 dθ

I(x) = k $({r}^{6}/6)^(5)_0$ × ${θ/2 - sin2θ/4}^{\pi /2}_0$

I(x) = k × $({6}^{6}/6)$ × ( ${\pi /4} - sin\pi /4)$

I(x) = k × $({6}^{5})$ × ${\pi /4}$

I(x) = 1444×k × ${\pi}$ .....................1

and we can say I(x) = I(y) by the symmetry rule

and here I(o) will be I(x) + I(y) i.e

I(o) = 2 × 1444×k × ${\pi}$

I(o) = 3888×k × ${\pi}$ ......................2

3 0

3 years ago

A proton is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V0 and gains a speed v0. If it were accelerated instead through

Svet_ta [14]

Answer:

The speed is $\sqrt{2}v_{0}$ .

(a) is correct option.

Explanation:

Given that,

Potential difference $V= V_{0}$

Speed $v = v_{o}$

If it were accelerated instead

Potential difference $V'=2V_{0}$

We need to calculate the speed

Using formula of initial work done on proton

$W = q V$

We know that,

$\Delta W=\Delta K.E$

$q V=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2$

Put the value into the formula

$q V_{0}=\dfrac{1}{2}mv_{0}^2$

$v_{0}^2=\dfrac{2qV_{0}}{m}$ ....(I)

If it were accelerated instead through a potential difference of $2 V_{0}$ , then it would gain a speed will be given as :

Using an above formula,

$v_{0}'^2=\dfrac{2qV_{0}}{m}$

Put the value of $V_{0}$

$v_{0}'^2=\dfrac{2q\times2V_{0}}{m}$

$v_{0}'=\sqrt{\dfrac{4qV_{0}}{m}}$

$v_{0}'=\sqrt{2}v_{0}$

Hence, The speed is $\sqrt{2}v_{0}$ .

6 0

3 years ago