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kap26 [50]
2 years ago
8

Connecting many devices in a single socket does not affect the flow of current in a

Physics
1 answer:
eimsori [14]2 years ago
7 0

<u>A</u><u>n</u><u>s</u><u>w</u><u>e</u><u>r</u><u>:</u><u>-</u><em> </em><em>F</em><em>a</em><em>l</em><em>s</em><em>e</em>

<u>E</u><u>x</u><u>p</u><u>l</u><u>a</u><u>n</u><u>a</u><u>t</u><u>i</u><u>o</u><u>n</u><u>:</u><u>-</u>

<em>False because it can leads to overloading and further to short circut.</em>

<h2><em><u>H</u></em><em><u>o</u></em><em><u>p</u></em><em><u>e</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>I</u></em><em><u>t</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>W</u></em><em><u>i</u></em><em><u>l</u></em><em><u>l</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>H</u></em><em><u>e</u></em><em><u>l</u></em><em><u>p</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>Y</u></em><em><u>o</u></em><em><u>u</u></em><em><u>!</u></em></h2>
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OlgaM077 [116]

Answer: Moral

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
A single loop of current is immersed in an externally applied uniform magnetic field of 3 Tesla oriented in the positive y direc
vlabodo [156]

Answer:

mu=12Tm^2

Explanation:

the magnetic moment mu of a single loop is given by:

\mu = I A B

where I is the current, B is the magnetic field and A is the area of the loop. By replacing we obtain:

\mu=(0.5A)(4m*2m)(3T)=12Tm^2

hope this helps!!

6 0
3 years ago
An unruly student with a spitwad (a lump of wet paper) of mass 20 g in his pocket finds himself in the school library where ther
jeka94

Answer:

T = 188.5 s, correct is  C

Explanation:

This problem must be worked on using conservation of angular momentum. We define the system as formed by the fan and the paper, as the system is isolated, the moment is conserved

         

initial instant. Before the crash

        L₀ = r m v₀ + I₀ w₀

the angular speed of the fan is zero w₀ = 0

final instant. After the crash

        L_f = I₀ w + m r v

        L₀ = L_f

        m r v₀ = I₀ w + m r v

angular and linear velocity are related

        v = r w

        w = v / r

        m r v₀ = I₀ v / r + m r v

         m r v₀ = (I₀ / r + mr) v

       v = \frac{m}{\frac{I_o}{r}  +mr} \ r v_o

let's calculate

       v = \frac{0.020}{\frac{1.4}{0.6  } + 0.020 \ 0.6  } \ 0.6 \ 4

       v = \frac{0.020}{2.345} \ 2.4

       v = 0.02 m / s

         

To calculate the time of a complete revolution we can use the kinematics relations of uniform motion

        v = x / T

         T = x / v

the distance of a circle with radius r = 0.6 m

         x = 2π r

we substitute

         T = 2π r / v

let's calculate

         T = 2π 0.6/0.02

         T = 188.5 s

reduce

         t = 188.5 s ( 1 min/60 s) = 3.13 min

correct is  C

6 0
3 years ago
Why is centrifugal force is a fake force?<br>​
mash [69]

Answer:

We say fictitious because the actual source of the centrifugal acceleration is somewhat indirect and the experience one has results from the unbalanced forces acting on the reference frame, not a force. Note, it is an acceleration not a force. For instance, imagine yourself on a swing.

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3 years ago
Come all ruj-jxgn-qua​
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Answer:

this app is for solving doubts not sending links ok

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