We can conclude that it is a longitudinal wave because the wave is traveling through a medium displacing particles<span>
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The answer to that question is c. tamod
Positive. The 1st object loses electrons and will thus have an imbalance of charge with loss of electrons.
Answer:
10.09 N
Explanation:
Analogously to Newton's second law, torque can be defined as:

Here, I is the moment of inertia and
is the angular acceleration. We have:

Torque is the vector product of the position vector of the point at which the force is applied by the force vector:

Since the effective lever arm is perpendicular to the force, the angle between them is
. The magnitud of this vector product is defined as:
.
Solving for F and replacing the known values:
