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LiRa [457]
2 years ago
10

Water enters a boiler at a temperature of 110°F. The boiler is to produce 2000 lb/hr of steam at a pressure of 130 psia. How man

y BTU/hr are required? rantanmilar steel tanlic 14 feet long and 8 feet wide. It is filled to a height of 6' with oil which​
Engineering
1 answer:
strojnjashka [21]2 years ago
5 0
Yes it does the answer is no
You might be interested in
Explain the process of predicting equipment failure?
leva [86]

Answer:

The predicting equipment failure is the process that does not require any data or information from the equipment. The main aim of the predictive maintenance is the ability to find the system failure firstly and then prevent the equipment.

We can easily predict the equipment failure by proper monitoring and controlling the whole system. Then, find all the defects and analysis the problem in the equipment so that we can prevent it efficiently without any occurrence of interrupt in the equipment.

8 0
3 years ago
An incorrect way of handling disposable gloves includes
Alexxandr [17]

The incorrect way of handling disposable gloves are as follows;

  • Blow into them
  • Hold them by the fingers
  • Roll them onto the hands

<h3>What are disposable gloves?</h3>

Disposable gloves are gloves that you use one time and then throw away.

They are usually transparent and made of nitrile, latex, or vinyl.

They are usually tough to withstand liquids and chemicals.

Therefore, the incorrect way of handling them includes the following;

  • Blow into them
  • Hold them by the fingers
  • Roll them onto the hands

learn more on disposable gloves here: brainly.com/question/24012826

#SPJ11

4 0
2 years ago
The Web and Digital Communications pathway is broken down into four main categories of technology. Which category BEST describes
jasenka [17]
D marketing because he’s advertising ski equipment to buy
6 0
3 years ago
Brittle failure is a type of failure in which: (a) There is large amount of plastic deformation (b) Large amount of elastic defo
sp2606 [1]

Answer:

    c). Very little plastic and elastic deformation

Explanation:

Brittle failure is a sudden, very rapid crack where there is no sign of any plastic deformation or ductility. The failure is not stable unlike ductile failure and the the crack propagates very fast without any further increase of any stress. In brittle failure there is very little plastic deformation and low energy is absorbed before fracture takes place.

Thus, very little plastic and elastic deformation takes place in brittle failure.

7 0
3 years ago
This is problem 4 from chapter 6 of the course text. Find the Thevenin equivalent seen at the terminal A-B. Select which answer
miv72 [106K]

Answer:

Option C is correct.

Vs = 9 V, Rth = 30 ohms

Explanation:

In the circuit diagram, there are two sources, so, using superposition, we'll find voltage across A and B, Vab, with respect to each of the sources.

Taking the voltage source as primary source.

We will open circuit the current source just like it is presented in the first drawing of the 2nd image I have added to this solution.

By open-circuiting the current source, the three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ are in series.

This means that the Vab is the voltage across the R₃ resistor.

Using voltage divider rule,

Vab = (R₃/R₁ + R₂ + R₃) Vs₁

Vab = [40/(60 + 60 + 40)] (12)

Vab = 3 V

Taking the current source as the primary source.

We will now short circuit the voltage source as shown in the 2nd drawing of the 2nd image I have attached to this solution.

As shown in the 2nd drawing of the 2nd file I attached to this solution, the R₂ is in parallel with R₁ and R₃, that is R₂//(R₁ + R₃)

Using the current divider rule

Current in the (R₁ + R₃) branch = [R₂/(R₂ + (R₁ + R₃))] Is₂ = (60/(60 + 60 + 40)) (0.4) = 0.15 A

Vab = voltage across the R₃ resistor = IR₃ = 0.15 × 40 = 6 V

Total voltage across A and B, Vab = Vab due to Vs₁ + Vab due to Is₂ = 3 + 6 = 9 V

And for the Rth, we open-circuit the current source and short-circuit the voltage source simultaneously and look at the resistance of the setup from the AB terminal, as shown in the first drawing of the 3rd file attached to this solution.

It is evident that R₃ is in a parallel combination with (R₁ + R₂)

Rth = (R₁ + R₂)//R₃ = (60 + 60)//40 = 120//40 = (120× 40)/(120 + 40) = 30 ohms

The image of the thevenin equivalent of the circuit as seen from terminals AB is presented in the 2nd drawing on the 3rd image attached.

5 0
3 years ago
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