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bija089 [108]
2 years ago
5

A. How far does a 100-newton force have to move to do 1,000 joules

Physics
1 answer:
Aloiza [94]2 years ago
5 0

Work done by a force is given as the product of force and the distance moved by the force.

<h3>What is work done?</h3>

Work done is the product of force and the distance moved by the the force.

  • Work done = Force × distance

Thus, distance required by the 100 N force is given as:

  • Distance = work done/force

Distance = 1000/100 = 10 m

Distance to be moved is 10 m.

Force applied = work done/ distance

Force applied by the hoist = 500/2

Force applied by the hoist = 250 N

Distance moved in one push-up = 25 cm = 0.25 m

Work done by the athlete after one push-up = 250 × 0.25 m

Work done by the athlete = 62.5 J

Distance moved by the force = 0 m

Work done = 500 × 0 = 0 N

Therefore, for work to be done, force has to move a distance.

Learn more about work done at: brainly.com/question/25573309

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mojhsa [17]

Answer:

Net pull = 110 N to the left

Explanation:

Group the different pulls according to the direction (right or left)

2 pull 196 N each to the right

4 pull 98 N each to the left

5 pull 62 N each to the left

3 pull 150 N each to the right

1 pull 250 N to the left

Since positive direction is to the right, the pulls to the left will have a minus (-)

Net Force= 2(196)+4(-98)+5(-62)+3(150)+1(-250) \\Net Force = -110

The resulting force is negative, meaning the direction is to the left

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3 years ago
A box of weight 280 N is being pulled to the right by a pulling force vec F of magnitude 50 N. The box is moving at a constant s
boyakko [2]

Answer:

what diagram. I can't see any

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3 years ago
5.1C A fluid flows steadily through a pipe with a uniform crosssectional area. The density of the fluid decreases to half its in
prisoha [69]

The options are;

a. V2 equals 2V1.

b. V2 equals (V1)/2.

c. V2 equals V1.

d. V2 equals (V1)/4.

e. V2 equals 4V1.

Answer:

Option A: V2 equals 2V1

Explanation:

Since the flow is steady, then we can say;

mass flow rate at input = mass flow rate at output.

Formula for mass flow rate is;

m' = ρVA

Thus;

At input;

m'1 = ρ1•V1•A1

At output;

m'2 = ρ2•V2•A2

So, m'1 = m'2

Now, we are told that the density of the fluid decreases to half its initial value.

Thus; ρ2 = (ρ1)/2

Since m'1 = m'2, then;

ρ1•V1•A1 = (ρ1)/2•V2•A2

Now, the pipe is uniform and thus the cross section doesn't change. Thus;

A1 = A2

We now have;

ρ1•V1•A1 = (ρ1)/2•V2•A1

A1 and ρ1 will cancel out to give;

V1 = (V2)/2

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3 years ago
An elephant and a mouse would both have zero weight in gravity-free space. If they were moving toward you with the same speed, w
Dovator [93]

The elephant and the mouse having zero weight in a gravity free space will not bump into you at the same effect.

<u>Explanation: </u>

When both are in a gravity free space, the weights are zero, as we know that the\text {weight of the body}=\text {mass of the body} \times \text {acceleration due to gravity}

\text {here, the weight of elephant}=\text {mass of elephant } \times \text {zero gravti} y=zero

\text {similarly,weight of mouse}=\text {mass of mouse } \times \text {zero gravity}=zero

But when they will acquire the speed of same magnitude, say v, their different masses will acquire different momentum, which will make the difference in effect while bumping.  

\text { momentum of elephant }=\text { mass of elephant } \times v  \text { momentum of mouse = mass of mouse } \times v

And as we know \text { mass of elephant }>\text { mass of mouse }  Therefore, effect of impact by elephant will be more than that of mouse . An elephant breaking into you will take you back faster than a mouse in space hits you.

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Young's interference experiment demonstrated the particle nature of light T/F?
MAVERICK [17]
I think the answer is false

6 0
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