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Sholpan [36]
2 years ago
14

In a slowly cooled hypereutectoid iron-carbon steel, the pearlite colonies are

Engineering
1 answer:
jek_recluse [69]2 years ago
7 0

In a slowly cooled hypereutectoid iron-carbon steel, the pearlite colonies are normally separated from each other by a more or less continuous boundary layer of cementite done by Slower cooling reasons coarse Pearlite, even as rapid cooling reasons first-rate pearlite to form.

<h3>What levels is in Hypereutectoid metal?</h3>

Hypoeutectoid steels can, upon preliminary cooling from the austenite single segment field, exist as extraordinary levels, eutectoid ferrite and austenite, every with extraordinary carbon contents.

At room temperature, hypereutectoid steels have a pearlitic primary microstructure (ferrite grains with embedded cementite lamellae) with moreover induced cementite on the grain boundaries! The micrograph under suggests a hypereutectoid metal with 1.0 Carbon (C100).

Read more about the cementite:

brainly.com/question/24924853

#SPJ1

You might be interested in
7.35 and 7.36 For the beam and loading shown, (a) draw the shear and bending-moment diagrams, (b) determine the maximum absolute
Crank

Maximum absolute values of the shear = 28 KN

Maximum absolute values of bending moment = 5.7 KN.m

<h3>How to draw Shear Force and Bending Moment Diagram?</h3>

A) We can see the beam loaded in the first image attached.

For the shear diagram, let us calculate the shear from point load to point load.

From A to C, summing vertical to zero gives; ∑fy = 0: -20 - V = 0

V = -20 KN

From C to D, summing vertical to zero gives; ∑fy = 0: -20 + 48 - V = 0

V = 28 KN

From D to E, summing vertical to zero gives; ∑fy = 0: -20 + 48 - 20 - V = 0

V = 8 KN

From E to B, summing vertical to zero gives; ∑fy = 0: -20 + 48 - 20 - 20 - V = 0

V = -12 KN

For the bending moment diagram, let us calculate the bending moment from point load to point load.

At point A, the bending moment would be zero. Thus, M_A = 0 KN.m

At point C, taking moment about point C and equating to zero gives;

M_C = 0. Thus; 20(0.225) + M = 0

M = -4.5 KN.m

At point D, taking moment about point D and equating to zero gives;

M_D = 0. Thus; 20(0.525) - 48(0.3) + M = 0

M = 3.9 KN.m

At point E, taking moment about point E and equating to zero gives;

M_D = 0. Thus; 20(0.75) - 48(0.525) + 20(0.225) + M = 0

M = 5.7 KN.m

At point B, taking moment about point E and equating to zero gives;

M_E = 0. Thus; 20(1.05) - 48(0.825) + 20(0.525) + (20 * 0.3) + M = 0

M = 2.1 KN.m

2) From the attached diagrams, we can deduce that;

Maximum absolute values of the shear = 28 KN

Maximum absolute values of bending moment = 5.7 KN.m

Read more about shear force & bending moment diagram at; brainly.com/question/14834487

#SPJ1

4 0
1 year ago
Hey, I have a question, I was thinking that if you have engineering skills or drawing skill you could help me to start a project
gayaneshka [121]

Answer

Dont have one;(

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Consider a single crystal of nickel oriented such that a tensile stress is applied along a [001] direction. If slip occurs on a
Elena L [17]

Answer:

\mathbf{\tau_c =5.675 \ MPa}

Explanation:

Given that:

The direction of the applied tensile stress =[001]

direction of the slip plane = [\bar 101]

normal to the slip plane = [111]

Now, the first thing to do is to calculate the angle between the tensile stress and the slip by using the formula:

cos \lambda = \Big [\dfrac{d_1d_2+e_1e_2+f_1f_2}{\sqrt{(d_1^2+e_1^2+f_1^2)+(d_2^2+e_2^2+f_2^2) }} \Big]

where;

[d_1\ e_1 \ f_1] = directional indices for tensile stress

[d_2 \ e_2 \ f_2] = slip direction

replacing their values;

i.e d_1 = 0 ,e_1 = 0 f_1 =  1 & d_2 = -1 , e_2 = 0 , f_2 = 1

cos \lambda = \Big [\dfrac{(0\times -1)+(0\times 0) + (1\times 1) }{\sqrt{(0^2+0^2+1^2)+((-1)^2+0^2+1^2) }} \Big]

cos \ \lambda = \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}}

Also, to find the angle \phi between the stress [001] & normal slip plane [111]

Then;

cos \  \phi = \Big [\dfrac{d_1d_3+e_1e_3+f_1f_3}{\sqrt{(d_1^2+e_1^2+f_1^2)+(d_3^2+e_3^2+f_3^2) }} \Big]

replacing their values;

i.e d_1 = 0 ,e_1 = 0 f_1 =  1 & d_3 = 1 , e_3 = 1 , f_3 = 1

cos \  \phi= \Big [ \dfrac{ (0 \times 1)+(0 \times 1)+(1 \times 1)} {\sqrt {(0^2+0^2+1^2)+(1^2+1^2 +1^2)} } \Big]

cos \phi= \dfrac{1} {\sqrt{3} }

However, the critical resolved SS(shear stress) \mathbf{\tau_c} can be computed using the formula:

\tau_c = (\sigma )(cos  \phi )(cos \lambda)

where;

applied tensile stress \sigma = 13.9 MPa

∴

\tau_c =13.9\times (  \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{2}} )( \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{3}})

\mathbf{\tau_c =5.675 \ MPa}

3 0
3 years ago
What is the mass of a brass axle that has a volume of 0.318 cm? ​
NeX [460]

Answer:

2.7g

Explanation:

the mass of a brass axle that has a volume of 0.318 cm is 2.7g.

8 0
3 years ago
Where can you find free air pods that look real
Tema [17]
You can find air pods that look real on letgo. or you can go to wish.com but if you want a good pair jus get the real ones
7 0
3 years ago
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