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Lapatulllka [165]
2 years ago
13

Which statement correctly describes mass-energy equivalence? All energy in the universe will be converted to an equivalent amoun

t of mass. Mass can decrease in nuclear changes without the production of energy. All energy in the universe is a result of mass being converted into energy. A large amount of mass is equivalent to a small amount of energy.
Physics
1 answer:
olchik [2.2K]2 years ago
4 0

The statement 'all energy in the universe is a result of mass being converted into energy' correctly describes mass-energy equivalence.

<h3>What is mass-energy equivalence?</h3>

The expression mass-energy equivalence refers to the proportion of matter that can be converted into energy in the universe.

This mass-energy equivalence is an outcome of process of converting mass into energy.

In conclusion, the statement 'all energy in the universe is a result of mass being converted into energy' correctly describes mass-energy equivalence.

Learn more about mass-energy equivalence here:

brainly.com/question/3171044

#SPJ1

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A particle of mass 7.4 × 10-8 kg and charge +8.6 μC is traveling due east. It enters perpendicularly a magnetic field whose magn
nordsb [41]

Answer:

Time spent by the charge in the magnetic field = 0.008445 s = (8.445 × 10⁻³) s

Explanation:

The force exerted on the charge due to magnetic field = the centripetal force that causes the charge to move in a circular motion.

Force due to magnetic field = qvB sin θ

q = charge on the particle = 8.6 μC

v = velocity of the charge

B = magnetic field strength = 3.2 T

θ = angle between the velocity of the charge and the magnetic field = 90°, sin 90° = 1

F = qvB

Centripetal force responsible for circular motion = mv²/r = mvw

where w = angular velocity.

mvw = qvB

mw = qB

w = (qB/m) = (8.6 × 10⁻⁶ × 3.2)/(7.4 × 10⁻⁸)

w = 3.72 × 10² rad/s

w = 372 rad/s

w = (angular displacement)/time

Time = (angular displacement)/w

Angular displacement = π rads (half of a circle; 2π/2)

Time = (π/372) = 0.008445 s

5 0
3 years ago
A 100 N uniform ladder of length 5.0 m rest against a smooth wall. The magnitude of the force of the wall, P, acting on the top
amid [387]

Answer:

Explanation:

Wall reactions are never constant as the ladder angle decreases from vertical.

I will ASSUME that the MAXIMUM wall reaction is 40 N before slippage occurs.

Let θ be the ladder angle to horizontal

Moments about the ladder foot will sum to zero

40[5sinθ) - 100[(5/2)cosθ = 0

40[5sinθ) = 100[(5/2)cosθ

 200sinθ = 250cosθ

sinθ/cosθ = 250/200

        tanθ = 1.25

             θ = 51.34019174...

            θ = 51°

4 0
3 years ago
What is the speed or a softball that travel 20m in 2sec
Svetllana [295]
<h2>Greetings!</h2>

To find speed with distance and time, you need to remember the speed formula:

Speed = distance ÷ time

So we need speed and we have the other two values, we can plug the values in:

Speed = 20 ÷ 2 = 10

The measurement for speed in this case is m/s (metres per second)

<h3>So the answer is 10m/s</h3>
<h2>Hope this helps!</h2>
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
pangram, or holoalphabetic sentence, is a sentence that contains every letter of the alphabet at least once. The most famous pan
Leviafan [203]

"The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dog."

I get 36 .

8 0
4 years ago
Observe: Up until now, all the problems you have solved have involved converting only one unit. However, some conversion problem
ipn [44]

Answer:

t is appropriate to clarify that units such as time and angles the transformation is not in base ten, for example:

        60 s = 1 min

        60 min = 1 h

        24 h = 1 day

Therefore, for this transformation, you must be more careful

the length transformation is base 10

Explanation:

In many exercises the units used are transformed by equations into other units called derivatives, in general the transformation of derived units is the product of the transformation of the constituent units.

In the example of velocity, the derivative unit is m / s, which is why it works in the same way that you transform length and time if in the equation it is multiplying it is multiplied and if it is dividing it is divided.

It is appropriate to clarify that units such as time and angles the transformation is not in base ten, for example:

        60 s = 1 min

        60 min = 1 h

        24 h = 1 day

Therefore, for this transformation, you must be more careful

the length transformation is base 10

      1000 m = 1 km

7 0
3 years ago
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