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Vsevolod [243]
2 years ago
10

Example 3 :

Physics
1 answer:
kherson [118]2 years ago
4 0

The friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 × 10^8 respectively. Also, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 × 10^8 respectively.

<h3>How to determine the friction factor</h3>

Using the formula

μ = viscosity = 0. 06 Pas

d =  diameter = 120mm = 0. 12m

V =  velocity = 1m/s and 3m/s

ρ = density = 0.9

a. Velocity = 1m/s

friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 12* 1* 0. 9}

friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 108}

friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 55

friction factor = 0. 289

b. When V = 3mls

Friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 12 * 3* 0. 9}

Friction factor = 0. 52 × \frac{0. 06}{0. 324}

Friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 185

Friction factor = 0.096

Loss When V = 1m/s

Head loss/ length = friction factor × 1/ 2g × velocity^2/ diameter

Head loss = 0. 289 × \frac{1}{2*6. 6743 * 10^-11} × \frac{1^2}{0. 120} × \frac{1}{100}

Head loss =  1. 80 × 10^8

Head loss When V = 3m/s

Head loss = 0. 096 × \frac{1}{1. 334 *10^-10} × \frac{3^2}{0. 120} × \frac{1}{100}

Head loss = 5. 3× 10^8

Thus, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 ×10^8 respectively also, the friction factor and head loss  when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 ×10^8 respectively.

Learn more about friction here:

brainly.com/question/24338873

#SPJ1

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Meselson and Stahl

<u>Explanation:</u>

<u></u>

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11) 1.04\cdot 10^7 J

12) 1.04\cdot 10^7 J

13) 50.0 m/s

14) 41.6 m/s

Explanation:

11)

The potential energy of an object is the energy possessed by the object due to its position relative to the ground. It is given by

PE=mgh

where

m is the mass of the object

g is the acceleration due to gravity

h is the height relative to the ground

Here in this problem, when the train is at the top, we have:

m = 8325 kg (mass of the train + riders)

g=9.8 m/s^2 (acceleration due to gravity)

h = 127 m (height of the train at the top)

Substituting,

PE=(8325)(9.8)(127)=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

12)

According to the law of conservation of energy, the total mechanical energy of the train must be conserved (in absence of friction). So we can write:

KE_t + PE_t = KE_b + PE_b

where

KE_t is the kinetic energy at the top

PE_t is the potential energy at the top

KE_b is the kinetic energy at the bottom

PE_b is the potential energy at the bottom

The kinetic energy is the energy due to motion; since the train is at rest at the top, we have

KE_t=0

Also, at the bottom the height is zero, so the potential energy is zero

PE_b=0

Therefore, we find:

KE_b=PE_t=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

13)

The kinetic energy of an object is the energy of the object due to its motion. Mathematically, it is given by

KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where

m is the mass of the object

v is the speed of the object

From question 12), we know that the kinetic energy of the train at the bottom is

KE=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

We also know that the mass is

m = 8325 kg

Therefore, we can calculate the speed of the train at the bottom:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2KE}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(1.04\cdot 10^7)}{8325}}=50.0 m/s

14)

At the top of the second hill, the total mechanical energy of the train is still conserved.

Therefore, we can write again:

KE_1 + PE_1 = KE_2 + PE_2

where

KE_1 is the kinetic energy at the top of the 1st hill

PE_1 is the potential energy at the top of the 1st hill

KE_2 is the kinetic energy at the top of the 2nd hill

PE_2 is the potential energy at the top of the 2nd hill

From the previous questions, we know that

KE_1=0

and

PE_1=1.04\cdot 10^7 J

The height of the second hill is

h = 39 m

So we can also find the potential energy at the second hill:

PE_2=mgh=(8325)(9.8)(39)=3.2\cdot 10^6 J

So, the kinetic energy at the second hill is

KE_2=PE_1-PE_2=1.04\cdot 10^7 - 3.2\cdot 10^6 =7.2\cdot 10^6 J

And so, the speed is

v=\sqrt{\frac{2KE_2}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(7.2\cdot 10^6)}{8325}}=41.6 m/s

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