Answer:
Mechanical Advantage Formula
The efficiency of a machine is equal to the ratio of its output to its input. It is also equal to the ratio of the actual and theoretical MAs. But, it does not mean that low-efficiency machines are of limited use. An automobile jack, for example, have to overcome a great deal of friction and therefore it has low efficiency. But still, it is extremely valuable because small effort can be applied to lift a great weight.
Also, in another way the mechanical advantage is the force generated by a machine to the force applied to it which is applied in assessing the performance of the machine.
The mechanical advantage formula is:
MA = FBFA
Explanation:
MAmechanical advantageFBthe force of the object
FAthe effort to overcome the force
Answer:
la escuela,en casa y listo...............
Answer:
The mechanical advantage is 3 to 1
Explanation:
A frictionless pulley with three support ropes carries equal tension on each of the ropes thus;
Tension in each pulley rope = T
Total tension in the 3 ropes = 3 × T = 3·T
Direction of the tension forces on each rope = Unidirectional
Total force provided by the 3 ropes = 3·T
Therefore, a force, T, applied at the end of the rope will result in a lifting force of 3·T
Hence, the mechanical advantage = 3·T to T which is presented as follows;
The mechanical advantage = 3 to 1.
74 cycles it’s what u need
Answer:
The answer is " and 157.5 MPa".
Explanation:
In point A:
The strength of its products with both the grain dimension is linked to this problem. This formula also for grain diameter of 310 MPA is represented as its low yield point
Here y is MPa is low yield point, x is mm grain size, and k becomes proportionality constant.
Replacing the equation for each condition:
People can get yo = 275 MPa with both equations and k= 15.5 Mpa .
To substitute the answer,
In point b:
The equation is
equation is:
by putting the above value in the formula we get the value that is= 157.5 MPa