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MrRa [10]
3 years ago
13

Why the power factor is Low in no load test in induction motor ?​

Engineering
1 answer:
marshall27 [118]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

At no load, the Cosine of the phase angle between the stator current(I1) and the stator applied voltage(V1) is the power factor of an induction motor. The reason of the low power factor is high rotor reactance at lower loading. The rotor reactance value gets decreased with increased loading on induction motor..','.

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A two-dimensional flow field described by
Oduvanchick [21]

Answer:

the answer is

Explanation:

<h2>  We now focus on purely two-dimensional flows, in which the velocity takes the form </h2><h2>u(x, y, t) = u(x, y, t)i + v(x, y, t)j. (2.1) </h2><h2>With the velocity given by (2.1), the vorticity takes the form </h2><h2>ω = ∇ × u = </h2><h2> </h2><h2>∂v </h2><h2>∂x − </h2><h2>∂u </h2><h2>∂y </h2><h2>k. (2.2) </h2><h2>We assume throughout that the flow is irrotational, i.e. that ∇ × u ≡ 0 and hence </h2><h2>∂v </h2><h2>∂x − </h2><h2>∂u </h2><h2>∂y = 0. (2.3) </h2><h2>We have already shown in Section 1 that this condition implies the existence of a velocity </h2><h2>potential φ such that u ≡ ∇φ, that is </h2><h2>u = </h2><h2>∂φ </h2><h2>∂x, v = </h2><h2>∂φ </h2><h2>∂y . (2.4) </h2><h2>We also recall the definition of φ as </h2><h2>φ(x, y, t) = φ0(t) + Z x </h2><h2>0 </h2><h2>u · dx = φ0(t) + Z x </h2><h2>0 </h2><h2>(u dx + v dy), (2.5) </h2><h2>where the scalar function φ0(t) is arbitrary, and the value of φ(x, y, t) is independent </h2><h2>of the integration path chosen to join the origin 0 to the point x = (x, y). This fact is </h2><h2>even easier to establish when we restrict our attention to two dimensions. If we consider </h2><h2>two alternative paths, whose union forms a simple closed contour C in the (x, y)-plane, </h2><h2>Green’s Theorem implies that   </h2><h2> </h2><h2> </h2><h2> </h2><h2> </h2><h2> </h2><h2></h2><h2></h2>
5 0
3 years ago
how is friction losses in pipes reduced? a. decrease the pipe diameter b. increase the length of the pipes. c. decrease the leng
Citrus2011 [14]

Friction losses in pipes can be reduced by decreasing the length of the pipes, reducing the surface roughness of the pipes, and increasing the pipe diameter. Thus, options (c),(e), and (f) hold correct answers.

Friction loss is a measure of the amount of energy a piping system loses because flowing fluids meet resistance. As fluids flow through the pipes, they carry energy with them. Unfortunately, whenever there is resistance to the flow rate, it diverts fluids, and energy escapes. These opposing forces result in friction loss in pipes.

Friction loss in pipes can decrease the efficiency of the functions of pipes. These are a few ways by which friction loss in pipes can be reduced and the efficiency of the piping system can be boosted:

  • <u><em>Decrease the length of the pipes</em></u>: By decreasing pipe lengths and avoiding the use of sharp turns, fittings, and tees, whenever possible result in a more natural path for fluids to flow.
  • <u><em>Reduce the surface roughness of the pipes</em></u>:  By reducing the interior surface roughness of pipes, a smooth and clearer path is provided for liquids to flow.
  • <u><em>Increase the pipe diameter: </em></u>By widening the diameters of pipes, it is ensured that fluids squeeze through pipes easily.

You can learn more about friction losses at

brainly.com/question/13348561

#SPJ4

3 0
1 year ago
A smooth sphere with a diameter of 6 inches and a density of 493 lbm/ft^3 falls at terminal speed through sea water (S.G.=1.0027
Pachacha [2.7K]

Given:

diameter of sphere, d = 6 inches

radius of sphere, r = \frac{d}{2} = 3 inches

density,  \rho} = 493 lbm/ ft^{3}

S.G = 1.0027

g = 9.8 m/ m^{2} = 386.22 inch/ s^{2}

Solution:

Using the formula for terminal velocity,

v_{T} = \sqrt{\frac{2V\rho  g}{A \rho C_{d}}}              (1)

(Since, m = V\times \rho)

where,

V = volume of sphere

C_{d} = drag coefficient

Now,

Surface area of sphere, A = 4\pi r^{2}

Volume of sphere, V = \frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}

Using the above formulae in eqn (1):

v_{T} = \sqrt{\frac{2\times \frac{4}{3} \pir^{3}\rho  g}{4\pi r^{2} \rho C_{d}}}

v_{T} = \sqrt{\frac{2gr}{3C_{d}}}  

v_{T} = \sqrt{\frac{2\times 386.22\times 3}{3C_{d}}}

Therefore, terminal velcity is given by:

v_{T} = \frac{27.79}{\sqrt{C_d}} inch/sec

3 0
3 years ago
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