If <em>the isotherms</em> are spaced closely together over some portion of the map, there is a drastic temperature change over that portion.
Energy and Work have the same unit of measurement which is Joules in SI units.
Explanation:
- A Joule of Work is said to be done on an object when energy is transferred to that particular object.
- If two objects are involved, when one object transfers energy onto the second, a joule of work is said to be done by the first object.
- Work is also the application of force on an object over a distance. So Work = Force × Displacement
- Energy is neither created nor destroyed. It is in 2 forms - kinetic and potential.
- Kinetic energy is defined as the energy of a moving object while potential energy is known as the energy that is stored within an object.
- Kinetic Energy = 1/2 × mass × (velocity)²
- Potential Energy = mass × acceleration due to gravity × height
- Both energy and work are measured in Joules.
<span>31.3 m/s
Since the water balloon is being launched at a 45 degree angle, the horizontal and vertical speeds will be identical. Also the time the balloon takes to reach its peak altitude will match the time it takes to fall. So let's create a few expressions about what we know.
Distance the water balloon travels at velocity v for time t
d = vt
Total time required for the entire trip is double since the balloon goes up, then goes down
t = 2v/a
Now let's plug in the numbers we have, assuming the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s^2
t = 2v/9.8
100 = vt
Substitute 2v/9.8 for t in the 2nd formula
100 = v(2v/9.8)
Solve for v.
100 = v(2v/9.8)
100 = 2v^2/9.8
980. = 2v^2
490 = v^2
22.13594 = v
So we now know that both the horizontal velocity and vertical velocity needed is 22.13594 m/s. Let's verify that
2*22.13594 / 9.8 = 4.51754
So it will take 4.51754 second for the balloon to hit the ground after being launched.
4.51754 * 22.13594 = 100
And during that time it will travel 100 meters horizontally.
But we need to know the total velocity. And the Pythagorean theorem comes to the rescue. Just square the 2 velocities, add them together, and take the square root. We already know the square is 490 from the work above, so
sqrt(490+490) = sqrt(980) = 31.30495 m/s</span>
Answer: The first electromagnet has a more powerful current than
the second
Explanation:
Since the two electromagnets contain the same types of magnets and wires. If the magnet In the first moves much faster than the second. Therefore:
The first electromagnet has a more powerful current than the second
Because the induced EMF is proportional to the induced current.
Where the induced EMF depends on the speed of the magnet according to the formula below
EMF = BVL
So, increase in speed of the magnet will cause more powerful induced current and emf
How would you describe the behavior of particles in a solid?
