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Yakvenalex [24]

2 years ago

7

Why do scientists often take several measurements of the same object, average them together, and use the average value as the me

asurement?

1 answer:

DaniilM [7]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

To minimize the practical errors and improve the accuracy.

Explanation:

Scientists take several measurements and use the average of all the measured values to minimize the practical errors due to unavoidable circumstances and be close to the true value.

True value is the actual value of a measured parameter without any error, it is the value which is proposed in the design of a certain object.

Variations may occur in the measurement due to wear and tear, dust and air pressure. It is almost impossible to create ideal surrounding for the measurement procedure.

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Given a particle that has the velocity v(t) = 3 cos(mt) = 3 cos (0.5t) meters, a. Find the acceleration at 3 seconds. b. Find th

DiKsa [7]

Answer:

a. $\rm -1.49\ m/s^2.$

b. $\rm 50.49\ m.$

Explanation:

<u>Given:</u>

Velocity of the particle, v(t) = 3 cos(mt) = 3 cos (0.5t) .

<h2>(a):</h2>

The acceleration of the particle at a time is defined as the rate of change of velocity of the particle at that time.

$\rm a = \dfrac{dv}{dt}\\=\dfrac{d}{dt}(3\cos(0.5\ t ))\\=3(-0.5\sin(0.5\ t.))\\=-1.5\sin(0.5\ t).$

At time t = 3 seconds,

$\rm a=-1.5\sin(0.5\times 3)=-1.49\ m/s^2.$

<u>Note</u>:<em> The arguments of the sine is calculated in unit of radian and not in degree.</em>

<h2>(b):</h2>

The velocity of the particle at some is defined as the rate of change of the position of the particle.

$\rm v = \dfrac{dr}{dt}.\\\therefore dr = vdt\Rightarrow \int dr=\int v\ dt.$

For the time interval of 2 seconds,

$\rm \int\limits^2_0 dr=\int\limits^2_0 v\ dt\\r(t=2)-r(t=0)=\int\limits^2_0 3\cos(0.5\ t)\ dt$

The term of the left is the displacement of the particle in time interval of 2 seconds, therefore,

$\Delta r=3\ \left (\dfrac{\sin(0.5\ t)}{0.05} \right )\limits^2_0\\=3\ \left (\dfrac{\sin(0.5\times 2)-sin(0.5\times 0)}{0.05} \right )\\=3\ \left (\dfrac{\sin(1.0)}{0.05} \right )\\=50.49\ m.$

It is the displacement of the particle in 2 seconds.

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3 years ago

Hey guys i need song requests dbl

Andrew [12]

Answer:

Shiloh dynasty, jucie wrld or xxx or twenty one plot

Explanatio

8 0

3 years ago

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An objects motion changes

NARA [144]

Answer:

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3 0

2 years ago

N capacitors are connected in parallel to form a "capacitor circuit". The capacitance of first capacitor is C, second one is C/2

liberstina [14]

Answer:

2C

Explanation:

The equivalent capacitance of a parallel combination of capacitors is the sum of their capacitance.

So, if the capacitance of each capacitor is half the previous one, we have a geometric series with first term = C and rate = 0.5.

Using the formula for the sum of the infinite terms of a geometric series, we have:

Sum = First term / (1 - rate)

Sum = C / (1 - 0.5)

Sum = C / 0.5 = 2C

So the equivalent capacitance of this parallel connection is 2C.

5 0

3 years ago

To test the performance of its tires, a car

Rom4ik [11]

The coefficient of static friction is 0.222

Explanation:

In order for the car to remain in circular motion, the frictional force must be able to provide the necessary centripetal force. Therefore, the car will start skidding when the two forces are equal:

$\mu mg=m\frac{v^2}{r}$

where the term on the left is the frictional force, while the term on the right is the centripetal force, and where

$\mu$ is the coefficient of static friction

m is the mass of the car

g is the acceleration of gravity

v is the speed of the car

r is the radius of the track

In this problem, we have:

r = 564 m

v = 35 m/s

$g=9.8 m/s^2$

And re-arranging the equation for $\mu$ , we can find the coefficient of static friction:

$\mu = \frac{v^2}{gr}=\frac{35^2}{(9.8)(564)}=0.222$

Learn more about friction:

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2 years ago