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Irina-Kira [14]
3 years ago
9

a racing car undergoes a uniform acceleration of 4.00m/s2. if the net force causing the acceleration is 3.00 times 10^3 N, what

is the mass of the car
Physics
1 answer:
yKpoI14uk [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: 750Kg

Explanation:

Recall that force is the product of the mass M, of an object moving at a uniform acceleration.

i.e Force = Mass x Acceleration

In this case, Mass = ?

Force = 3.00 x 10^3 N = (3.00 x 1000N)

= 3000N

Uniform acceleration = 4.00m/s^2

Force = Mass x Acceleration

3000N = Mass x 4.00m/s^2

Mass = (3000N/4.00m/s^2)

Mass = 750Kg (The SI unit of mass is kilograms)

Thus, the mass of the car is 750Kg

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Answer:

The friction force acting on the object is 7.84 N

Explanation:

Given;

mass of object, m = 4 kg

coefficient of kinetic friction, μk = 0.2

The friction force acting on the object is calculated as;

F = μkN

F = μkmg

where;

F is the frictional force

m is the mass of the object

g is the acceleration due to gravity

F = 0.2 x 4 x 9.8

F = 7.84 N

Therefore, the friction force acting on the object is 7.84 N

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The Beams And Joints That Hold It .
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A closely wound, circular coil with a diameter of 4.30 cm has 470 turns and carries a current of 0.460 A .
Nadusha1986 [10]

Hi there!

a)
Let's use Biot-Savart's law to derive an expression for the magnetic field produced by ONE loop.

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}

dB = Differential Magnetic field element

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A)

R = radius of loop (2.15 cm = 0.0215 m)

i = Current in loop (0.460 A)

For a circular coil, the radius vector and the differential length vector are ALWAYS perpendicular. So, for their cross-product, since sin(90) = 1, we can disregard it.

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{r^2}

Now, let's write the integral, replacing 'dl' with 'ds' for an arc length:
B = \int \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{ids}{R^2}

Taking out constants from the integral:
B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  \int ds

Since we are integrating around an entire circle, we are integrating from 0 to 2π.

B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0 \, ds

Evaluate:
B =\frac{\mu_0 i}{4\pi R^2}  (2\pi R- 0) = \frac{\mu_0 i}{2R}

Plugging in our givens to solve for the magnetic field strength of one loop:

B = \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (0.460)}{2(0.0215)} = 1.3443 \mu T

Multiply by the number of loops to find the total magnetic field:
B_T = N B = 0.00631 = \boxed{6.318 mT}

b)

Now, we have an additional component of the magnetic field. Let's use Biot-Savart's Law again:
dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} \times \hat{r}}{r^2}

In this case, we cannot disregard the cross-product. Using the angle between the differential length and radius vector 'θ' (in the diagram), we can represent the cross-product as cosθ. However, this would make integrating difficult. Using a right triangle, we can use the angle formed at the top 'φ', and represent this as sinφ.  

dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l} sin\theta}{r^2}

Using the diagram, if 'z' is the point's height from the center:

r = \sqrt{z^2 + R^2 }\\\\sin\phi = \frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}}

Substituting this into our expression:
dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{id\vec{l}}{(\sqrt{z^2 + R^2})^2} }(\frac{R}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}})\\\\dB = \frac{\mu_0}{4\pi} \frac{iRd\vec{l}}{(z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}} }

Now, the only thing that isn't constant is the differential length (replace with ds). We will integrate along the entire circle again:
B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \int\limits^{2\pi R}_0, ds

Evaluate:
B = \frac{\mu_0 iR}{4\pi (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} (2\pi R)\\\\B = \frac{\mu_0 iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}

Multiplying by the number of loops:
B_T= \frac{\mu_0 N iR^2}{2 (z^2 + R^2)^\frac{3}{2}}}

Plug in the given values:
B_T= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7}) (470) (0.460)(0.0215)^2}{2 ((0.095)^2 + (0.0215)^2)^\frac{3}{2}}} \\\\ =  0.00006795 = \boxed{67.952 \mu T}

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1 year ago
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