Answer:
he electron is directly transferred to NADP+ to NADPH, but electron flow is used to generate a proton gradient for ATP synthesis. Electron is not directly transferred to ATP
NADP= Nicotin amide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
NADPH =Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate is the reduced form of NADP
therefore electron is not directly transferred to ATP
Answer:
The magnetic field will be
, '2d' being the distance the wires.
Explanation:
From Biot-Savart's law, the magnetic field (
) at a distance '
' due to a current carrying conductor carrying current '
' is given by

where '
' is an elemental length along the direction of the current flow through the conductor.
Using this law, the magnetic field due to straight current carrying conductor having current '
', at a distance '
' is given by

According to the figure if '
' be the current carried by the top wire, '
' be the current carried by the bottom wire and '
' be the distance between them, then the direction of the magnetic field at 'P', which is midway between them, will be perpendicular towards the plane of the screen, shown by the
symbol and that due to the bottom wire at 'P' will be perpendicular away from the plane of the screen, shown by
symbol.
Given
and 
Therefore, the magnetic field (
) at 'P' due to the top wire

and the magnetic field (
) at 'P' due to the bottom wire

Therefore taking the value of
the net magnetic field (
) at the midway between the wires will be

Answer:



Explanation:
Notice that this is a circuit with resistors R1 and R2 in parallel, connected to resistor R3 in series. It is what is called a parallel-series combination.
So we first find the equivalent resistance for the two resistors in parallel:

By knowing this, we can estimate the total current through the circuit,:

So approximately 0.17 amps
and therefore, we can estimate the voltage drop (V3) in R3 uisng Ohm's law:

So now we know that the potential drop across the parellel resistors must be:
10 V - 4.28 V = 5.72 V
and with this info, we can calculate the current through R1 using Ohm's Law:

Given values:
Mass of the steel ball, m = 100 g = 0.1 kg
Height of the steel ball, h1 = 1.8 m
Rebound height, h2 = 1.25 m
a. PE= mgh
0.1 x 9.8 x 1.8 =
1.764 Joules
b. KE = PE ->
1.764 Joules
c. KE= 1/2 mv square
so v = square root 2ke/m
square root 2 x 1.764/ 0.1
= 5.93 m/s
d. KE=PE=mgh square
0.1 x 9.8 x 1.21 =
1.186 joules
velocity of rebond is square root 2x 1.186/ 0.1 = 4.87 m/s
Explanation:
I think the third one coz it's so good