Answer:
Explanation:
For elastic collision , the formula for velocity of .06 kg is
v₁ = (m₁-m₂)/(m₁+m₂) u₁ + 2m₁m₂/(m₁+m₂) u₂
=( .06-.09 / .06+.09 ) 5.5 + (2 x .06 x .09 / .06+.09 ) 3.4
=( -.03 / .15) x 5.5 + (2 x .0054 / .15) x 3.4
= -1.1 +.2448
= - 0 .8552 m/s
Its direction will be - opposite direction
the formula for velocity of .09kg is
v₂ = (m₂-m₁)/(m₁+m₂) u₂ + 2m₁m₂/(m₁+m₂) u₁
= ( .09-.06 / .06+.09 ) 3.4 + (2 x .06 x .09 / .06+.09 ) 5.5
= .68 +.396
= 1.076 m / s
Its direction will be in the same direction .
Answer:
26325 m\s
Explanation:
Data:
v = ?
f = 117 Hz
w = 225
Formula:
v = fw
Solution:
v = ( 117)(225)
v = 26325 m\s <em>A</em><em>n</em><em>s</em><em> </em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>.</em>
Newton's law of conservation states that energy of an isolated system remains a constant. It can neither be created nor destroyed but can be transformed from one form to the other.
Implying the above law of conservation of energy in the case of pendulum we can conclude that at the bottom of the swing the entire potential energy gets converted to kinetic energy. Also the potential energy is zero at this point.
Mathematically also potential energy is represented as
Potential energy= mgh
Where m is the mass of the pendulum.
g is the acceleration due to gravity
h is the height from the bottom z the ground.
At the bottom of the swing,the height is zero, hence the potential energy is also zero.
The kinetic energy is represented mathematically as
Kinetic energy= 1/2 mv^2
Where m is the mass of the pendulum
v is the velocity of the pendulum
At the bottom the pendulum has the maximum velocity. Hence the kinetic energy is maximum at the bottom.
Energy can neither be created e destroyed. It can only be transferred from one form to another. Implying this law and the above explainations we conclude that at the bottom of the pendulum,the potential energy=0 and the kinetic energy=294J as the entire potential energy is converted to kinetic energy at the bottom.
Answer:
20.7N
Explanation:
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Answer:
phase difference = π / 2
constructive interference
Explanation:
Given data
wavelength = 420 nm
1st beam = 105 nm
path difference = 105 nm
to find out
phase difference and interference pattern of the two beams
solution
we use here equation of phase difference that is
phase difference = 2π / wavelength × Δx
put here value
phase difference = 2π / 420 × 105
phase difference = π / 2
and
we know that here path difference Δx is the integral multiple of the wavelength so it will be constructive interference
Δx is wavelength / 4
