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Butoxors [25]
2 years ago
14

To calculate the ideal mechanical advantage of a lever divide the input arm by the

Physics
1 answer:
Ivanshal [37]2 years ago
6 0
To calculate the ideal mechanical advantage of a lever divide the input arm by the output arm. 
Mechanical advantage is the amount by which a machine can multiply an input force, calculated by dividing output Force in newtons by input force in newtons, while the ideal mechanical advantage is the mechanical advantage of a machine that has no friction, calculated by dividing the input distance by the output distance. 
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A person hears the echo of his own voice from a distant hill after 2 seconds. How far away is the person from the hill, if the s
olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer: 330 m

Explanation:

The speed of sound V is defined as the distance traveled by the sound wave d in a especific time t:  

V=\frac{d}{t}  

Where:  

V=330 m/s is the speed of sound  

t=\frac{2 s}{2}=1 s is half the time the sound wave travels since the person speaks, the sound wave hits the hill and then returns to the person again  as an echo

d is the distance between the person and the hill

So, we have to find d:

d=Vt

d=(330 m/s)(1 s)

Finally:

d=330 m

4 0
2 years ago
Which statement best describes the difference between acceleration and velocity?
Sloan [31]
C. is the answer because acceleration is the change in velocity in time while velocity is speed with a direction
8 0
3 years ago
Two runners ran side by side, each holding one end of a horizontal pole. How would this affect the direction of the runners? Exp
zhuklara [117]

Answer:

They will run parallel to each other as the none of a straight pole cannot be bent in such a way where one side can turn without the other turning.

6 0
2 years ago
A marble slides without friction in a vertical loop around the inside of a smooth, 28.6 cm diameter horizontal pipe. The marble'
Leviafan [203]

Answer:3.49 m/s

Explanation:

Given

Speed of marble at Bottom v=4.22 m/s

Diameter of loop d=28.6 cm

As Energy is conserved therefore Energy at top is equal to energy at bottom

E_T=E_B

\frac{mv^2}{2}+mgh=\frac{mv_0^2}{2}  ,where v_0 is the velocity at bottom

\frac{v^2}{2}+gh=\frac{v_0^2}{2}

v_0^2=v^2+2gh

v^2=v_0^2-2gh

v=\sqrt{v_0^2-2gh}

v=\sqrt{4.22^2-2\times 9.8\times 0.286}

v=\sqrt{17.8084-5.6056}

v=3.49 m/s

                       

7 0
3 years ago
What are groups 1,2 and 3 examples of on the periodic table
pishuonlain [190]
<span>The number of the group identifies the column of the standard periodic table in which the element appears.</span>
Group 1 contains the  alkali metals ( lithium<span> (</span>Li<span>), </span>sodium<span> (</span>Na<span>), </span>potassium<span> (</span>K<span>), </span>rubidium<span> (</span>Rb<span>), </span>caesium<span> (</span>Cs<span>), and </span>francium(Fr).)<span>
Group 2 contains the alkaline earth metals (</span> beryllium<span> (</span>Be),magnesium<span> (</span>Mg<span>), </span>calcium<span> (</span>Ca<span>), </span>strontium<span> (</span>Sr<span>), </span>barium<span> (</span>Ba<span>) and </span>radium<span> (</span>Ra<span>) )
Group 3: </span><span> Scandium (Sc) and yttrium (Y) </span>
4 0
2 years ago
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