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Evgen [1.6K]
3 years ago
15

3.

Physics
1 answer:
lozanna [386]3 years ago
8 0

The force of gravity produces acceleration in all C. freely falling objects and this is known as acceleration due to gravity

Explanation:

A body is said to be in free fall when there is only one force acting on the body: the force of gravity.

Gravity is a force that acts downward, i.e. towards the Earth's centre.

If we are near the Earth's surface, the magnitude of the force of gravity on a body is given by

F=mg

where:

m is the mass of the body

g is known as the acceleration of gravity , whose value near the Earth's surface is 9.8 m/s^2).

We can apply Newton's second law on an object in free-fall, to find its acceleration. In fact, we have:

F=ma

where F is the force acting on the body and a is its acceleration.

Solving for the acceleration,

a=\frac{F}{m}

And substituting F,

a=\frac{mg}{m}=g=9.8 m/s^2

Therefore, every object in free-fall accelerates at 9.8 m/s^2 towards the ground.

Learn more about free fall here:

brainly.com/question/1748290

brainly.com/question/11042118

brainly.com/question/2455974

brainly.com/question/2607086

#LearnwithBrainly

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Chapter 05, Problem 15 Multiple-Concept Example 7 and Concept Simulation 5.2 review the concepts that play a role in this proble
Llana [10]

Answer:

Explanation:

The question relates to motion on a circular path .

Let the radius of the circular path be R .

The centripetal force for circular motion is provided by frictional force

frictional force is equal to μmg , where μ is coefficient of friction and mg is weight

Equating cenrtipetal force and frictionl force in the case of car A

mv² / R = μmg

R = v² /μg

= 26.8 x 26.8 / .335 x 9.8

= 218.77 m

In case of moton of car B

mv² / R = μmg

v²  = μRg

= .683  x 218.77x 9.8

= 1464.35

v = 38.26 m /s .

3 0
3 years ago
Why car speed is not considered as car velocity?​
grigory [225]

Answer:

Cause its scalar quantity

Explanation:

since speed does not take directions into consideration, it is considered to be a scalar quantity. On the other hand, the velocity of an object does not take into account direction, thus making it a vector quantity.

4 0
3 years ago
What are the factor that affect the efficiency of a pulley​
alukav5142 [94]

Answer:

Tension in the chains - In a chain drive, technically, you have a closed-chain (which has no end) going around 2 pulley or gears; looking closely you have 2 parallel chains going in opposite direction. If kept in horizontal direction, the one below the other is the slack side and the other the tight side. The tension on the upper or tight side is more than the slack side. So you need to keep in mind to keep your chain drive tight so that there is no loss or rotation or lags.

Sizes of the pulley/gear - The chain will be warped around a pair of pulley or gear. The sizes of these pulley/gear will also determine the efficiency of the chain drive (consider one big and one small)

Number of pulley/gear - If the number of pulley/gear is more and chain wrapped on it with little complexity will result in decrease in efficiency because of extra tension.

Length of the chain drive - You cannot have much too long chain drive. It will make your slack side more heavy because the end are further away. You have to apply more power and possibilities of lag increases decreasing efficiency. In an ideal situation, this won't happen, but this world isn't ideal.

Friction between chains & pulley/gear - If you have studied gears (involving its teeth), you will come to know that there is friction offered on the two meeting surfaces.

Angle of contact - This would have been explained better with a diagram. Although, if you are familiar with the terms you won't have difficulty understanding. Angle of contact is the angle the chain forms with the pulley/gear at the point of contact with the center of the pulley. The angle of contact should not be too small, or else the things will be slippery.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
3. A model rocket takes 0.05 seconds to speed up from rest to its maximum velocity of 80 m/s.
nikklg [1K]

Answer:

1600 \frac{m}{s^2}

Explanation:

Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity divided by the time it took to produce such change. The formula then reads:

a = \frac{change-in-velocity}{time} = \frac{Vf-Vi}{t}

Where Vf is the final velocity of the object, (in our case 80 m/s)

Vi is the initial velocity of the object (in our case 0 m/s because the object was at rest)

and t is the time it took to change from the Vi to the Vf (in our case 0.05 seconds.

Therefore we have:

a = \frac{80 m/s - 0 m/s}{0.05 sec} = 1600 \frac{m}{s^2}

Notice that the units of acceleration in the SI system are \frac{m}{s^2} (meters divided square seconds)

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An apparatus like the one Cavendish used to find G has large lead balls that are 5.2 kg in mass and small ones that are 0.046 kg.
Ber [7]

Answer:

The magnitude of gravitational force between two masses is 4.91\times 10^{-9}\ N.

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass of first lead ball, m_1=5.2\ kg

Mass of the other lead ball, m_2=0.046\ kg

The center of a large ball is separated by 0.057 m from the center of a small ball, r = 0.057 m

We need to find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the masses. It is given by the formula of the gravitational force. It is given by :

F=G\dfrac{m_1m_2}{r^2}\\\\F=6.67259\times 10^{-11}\times \dfrac{5.2\times 0.046}{(0.057)^2}\\\\F=4.91\times 10^{-9}\ N

So, the magnitude of gravitational force between two masses is 4.91\times 10^{-9}\ N. Hence, this is the required solution.

5 0
2 years ago
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