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3 years ago

15

The brain tries to create one meaningful picture from many small parts. This reflects: A. Gestalt psychology B. Phi phenomenon C

. Feature detectors D. Perceptual sets

2 answers:

Fudgin [204]3 years ago

8 0

I think it B , I am not sure

Mumz [18]3 years ago

3 0

Answer: A. Gestalt psychology

Explanation: APEX

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A change from one form of energy into another is called

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This is called a energy transformation

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3 years ago

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All objects on earth, whether moving or stationary, are acted upon by which force?

frutty [35]

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air resistance

Explanation:

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3 years ago

The two major parts of the optical telescope

nydimaria [60]

The "objective" (lens or mirror) is the major major major part of
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3 years ago

Salmon often jump waterfalls to reach their

natta225 [31]

Answer:

5.0 m/s

Explanation:

The horizontal motion of the salmon is uniform, so the horizontal component of the salmon's velocity is constant and it is

$v_x = u cos \theta$

where u is the initial speed and $\theta=37.7^{\circ}$ . The horizontal distance travelled by the salmon is

$d=v_x t = (ucos \theta)t$

where d = 1.95 m and t is the time needed to reach the final point.

Re-arranging for t,

$t=\frac{d}{v_x}=\frac{d}{u cos \theta}$ (1)

Along the vertical direction, the equation of motion is

$y=h+u_y t -\frac{1}{2}gt^2$

where:

y = 0.311 m is the final height reached by the salmon

h = 0 is the initial height

$u_y = u sin \theta$ is the vertical component of the initial velocity of the salmon

$g=9.81 m/s^2$ is the acceleration of gravity

t is the time

Substituting t as found in eq.(1), we get the equation

$y=(u sin \theta) \frac{d}{u cos \theta}- \frac{1}{2}g\frac{d^2}{u^2 cos^2 \theta}=d tan \theta - \frac{1}{2}g\frac{d^2}{u^2 cos^2 \theta}$

and we can solve this formula for u, the initial speed of the salmon:

$y=d tan \theta - \frac{1}{2}g\frac{d^2}{u^2 cos^2 \theta}\\\\u=\sqrt{\frac{gd^2}{2(dtan \theta -y)cos^2 \theta}}=\sqrt{\frac{(9.81)(1.95)^2}{2((1.95)(tan 37.7^{\circ}) -0.311)cos^2 37.7^{\circ}}}=5.0 m/s$

5 0

4 years ago

Normalize the equations

tatyana61 [14]

Answer:

Solution is in explanation

Explanation:

part a)

For normalization we have

$\int_{0}^{\infty }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore \int_{0}^{\infty }ae^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\Rightarrow a\int_{0}^{\infty }e^{-kx}dx=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[\frac{1}{e^{kx}}]_{0}^{\infty }=1\\\\\frac{a}{-k}[0-1]=1\\\\\therefore a=k$

Part b)

$\int_{0}^{L }f(x)dx=1\\\\\therefore Re(\int_{0}^{L }ae^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(a\int_{0}^{L }e^{-ikx}dx)=1\\\\\therefore Re(\frac{a}{-ik}[\frac{1}{e^{ikx}}]_{0}^{L})=1\\\\\Rightarrow Re(\frac{a}{-ik}(e^{-ikL}-1))=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}Re(\frac{1}{-i}(cos(-kL)+isin(-kL)-1))=1$

$\frac{a}{k}Re(\frac{1}{-i}(cos(-kL)+isin(-kL)-1))=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}Re(icos(-kL)+sin(kL)+\frac{1}{i})=1\\\\\frac{a}{k}sin(kL)=1\\\\a=\frac{k}{sin(kL)}$

7 0

4 years ago