To calculate the threshold frequency of the metal we use the formula,
Also,
Here, E is the energy of electron per atom, h is plank constant.
Given, binding energy of electron or for one electron,, here N is the Avogadro constant and its value is , so and plank constant,
Substituting these values in above relation we get,
.
Thus, the threshold frequency of the metal is .
Answer:
see solution below
Explanation:
The given resistors are connected in series.
Equivalent resistance in series = 30 + 55 + 15
Equivalent resistance in series Rt = 100 ohms
Since the potential difference in the circuit = 36V
Get the current in the circuit first
I = V/Rt
I = 36/100
I = 0.36A
Get the voltage across 30ohms resistor;
V30 = 0.36 * 30
V30 = 10.8volts
Hence the voltage across the 30ohms resistor is 10.8volts
Get the voltage across 55ohms resistor;
V55 = 0.36 * 55
V55 = 19.8volts
Hence the voltage across the 55ohms resistor is 19.8volts
Get the voltage across 15ohms resistor;
V15 = 0.36 * 15
V15 = 5.4volts
Hence the voltage across the 15ohms resistor is 5.4volts
Answer:
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Explanation:
4.266 m is the radius of the circular path the electron follows.
Given
Speed of electron (v) = 7.5 × 10⁶ m/s
Earth's Magnetic Field (B) = 1 × 10⁻⁵ T
We already know that
Mass of electron (m) = 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg
Charge on electron (q) = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C
According to the formula
Radius of circular path(r) = mass on electron × speed/ Charge × Magnetic field
Radius of circular path(r) = m × v/q × B
Put the values into the formula
r = 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ × 7.5 × 10⁶/ 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ × 10⁻⁵
On solving, we get
r = 4.266 m
Hence, 4.266 m is the radius of the circular path the electron follows.
Learn more about magnetic field here brainly.com/question/26257705
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To solve this we are going to use the formula for ideal mechanical advantage:
where
is the machine mechanical advantage
is the input distance
is the output distance
We know for our problem that
and
. Lets replace those values in our formula to find
:
The ideal machine advantage of the machine is 3. The inventor is claiming that the actual mechanical advantage of the machine is 4. Since the actual mechanical advantage takes into account energy losses, it is always less than the ideal mechanical advantage.
We can conclude that the developer's claim is false.