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postnew [5]
3 years ago
12

Could anyone help with this question I do

Physics
2 answers:
ra1l [238]3 years ago
8 0
<span>which of those can we not get back once it has been used, the answer is oil or petroleum</span>
dedylja [7]3 years ago
7 0
That is a very good question and i think i know the answer but am not sure. C sunlight because once you use sunlight you cant use it again and again
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A meteoroid is in a circular orbit 600 km above the surface of a distant planet. The planet has the same mass as Earth but has a
AVprozaik [17]
<h2>Answer:</h2><h2>The acceleration of the meteoroid due to the gravitational force exerted by the planet = 12.12 m/s^{2}</h2>

Explanation:

A meteoroid is in a circular orbit 600 km above the surface of a distant planet.

Mass of the planet = mass of earth = 5.972 x 10^{24} Kg

Radius of the earth = 90% of earth radius = 90% 6370 = 5733 km

The acceleration of the meteoroid due to the gravitational force exerted by the planet = ?

By formula, g = \frac{GM}{r^{2} }

where g is the acceleration due to the gravity

G is the universal gravitational constant = 6.67 x 10^{-11} m^{3} kg^{-1} s^{-2}

M is the mass of the planet

r is the radius of the planet

Substituting the values, we get

g =  \frac{(6.67 * 10^{-11}) (5.972 * 10^{24})  }{5733^{2} }

g = 12.12 m/s^{2}

The acceleration of the meteoroid due to the gravitational force exerted by the planet = 12.12 m/s^{2}

6 0
3 years ago
Hydraulic engineers often use, as a unit of volume of water, the "acre-foot", defined as the volume of water that will cover 1 a
Alex17521 [72]

Answer:

Volume = 1,015 acre-feet (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Rain = 1.7 in

Time = 30 min

Area = 29 km²

Find:

Volume in acre-feet

Computation:

1 km = 1,000 m

1 m = 3.28 feet

1 km² = 247.105 acre

d = 1.7 in = 1.7 / 12 = 0.14167 ft

Area = 29 × 247.105 = 7,166.045 acre

Volume = 7,166.045 acre × 0.14167 ft

Volume = 1,015 acre-feet (Approx)

7 0
3 years ago
What principle explains why lifting heavy objects is easier using ramps?
Anna11 [10]
By using ramps you can easily push or pull the object up the ramp.
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can there be displacement of an object in the absence of any force acting on it? Think, Discuss it with your friends and teacher
Fudgin [204]

Answer:

An object can have a displacement in the absence of any external force acting on it

Explanation:

When a object moves with a constant velocity (v), then it gets displaced in the direction of motion but the net external force experienced by the object is zero.

F  external  =ma

If object moves with constant velocity, acceleration is zero.

Since, a=0  ⟹F  external  =0

Using  s=ut+  1/2 at  ^2

 ⟹    Displacement    s=ut    (∵a=0)

Hence, an object can have a displacement in the absence of any external force acting on it

Hope this helped you:)

5 0
3 years ago
A groups beliefs, values, and patterns of behavior as known as its
Nady [450]

I believe the answer is Nonmaterial Culture.

8 0
3 years ago
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