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telo118 [61]
2 years ago
6

A heavy rope, 60 ft long, weighs 0.7 lb/ft and hangs over the edge of a building 140 ft high. (a) How much work W is done in pul

ling the rope to the top of the building?
Physics
1 answer:
Marina CMI [18]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

5880lb-ft of work is done

Explanation:

The length of the heavy rope is given as 60ft and the weight per length is 0.7lb/ft.

Therefore, the total weight of the heavy rope is

60×0.7 =42lb.

The work done in pulling the heavy rope to the top of the building is w = Fd.

Where

F is force is measured in pounds;42lb

d is distance through which the heavy rope is to be pulled measured in feet; 140ft

w= 42lb×140ft= 5880lb-ft

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Voices of swimmers at a pool travel 400 m/s through the air and 1,600 m/s underwater. The wavelength changes from 2 m in the air
frosja888 [35]

The frequency of the wave has not changed.

In fact, the frequency of a wave is given by:

f=\frac{v}{\lambda}

where v is the wave's speed and \lambda is the wavelength.

Applying the formula:

- In air, the frequency of the wave is:

f=\frac{400 m/s}{2 m}=200 Hz

- underwater, the frequency of the wave is:

f=\frac{1600 m/s}{8 m}=200 Hz

So, the frequency has not changed.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
(b) A piece of wood of volume 0.6 m² floats in water. Find the volume
enot [183]

Answer:

Explanation:

Let the volume below water be v . Then

buoyant force = v d g where d is density of water , g is acceleration due to gravity

= v x 1000 x g

weight of wood piece = volume x density of wood x g

= .6 x 600 x g

for equilibrium while floating

buoyant force = weight

= v x 1000 x g  =  .6 x 600 x g

v = .36 m²

volume above water or volume exposed = .6 - .36

= .24 m²

When immersed completely ,

buoyant force = .6 x 1000 x 9.8

= 5880 N

weight of wood

=  .6 x 600 x g

= 3528 N

buoyant force is more than the weight . In order to equalise them for floating with full volume in water

weight required = 5880 - 3528

= 2352 N.

6 0
3 years ago
A ball is falling at terminal velocity. Terminal velocity occurs when the ball is in equilibrium and the forces are balanced. Wh
Greeley [361]

Answer:

A free body diagram with 2 forces: the first pointing downward labeled F Subscript g Baseline 20 N and the second pointing upward labeled F Subscript air Baseline 20 N.

Explanation:

This is because at terminal velocity, the ball stops accelerating and the net force on the ball is zero. For the net force to be zero, equal and opposite forces must act on the ball, so that their resultant force is zero. That is F₁ + F₂ = 0 ⇒ F₁ = -F₂

Since F₁ = 20 N, then F₂ = -F₁ = -20 N

So, if F₁ points upwards since it is positive, then F₂ points downwards since it is negative.

So, a free body diagram with 2 forces: the first pointing downward labeled F Subscript g Baseline 20 N and the second pointing upward labeled F Subscript air Baseline 20 N best describes the ball falling at terminal velocity.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A solution is oversaturated with solute. which could be done to decrease the oversaturation?
Grace [21]
<span>A solution is oversaturated with solute. The thing that could be done to decrease the oversaturation is to add more solvent in order to decrease the concentration of the solute. You can also increase the temperature to increase solubility of the solute. Hope this answers the question.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
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Find electric field at point p which is a distance l away from the both +q and -q
denis-greek [22]

Answer:

\frac{1}{4\times(pie)\times\text{E}} \times\frac{q}{I^{2} }+\frac{1}{4\times(pie)\times\text{E}} \times\frac{-q}{I^{2} }

Explanation:

As given point p is equidistant from both the charges

It must be in the middle of both the charges

Assuming all 3 points lie on the same line

Electric Field due a charge q at a point ,distance r away

=\frac{1}{4\times(pie)\times\text{E}} \times\frac{q}{r^{2} }

Where

  • q is the charge
  • r is the distance
  • E is the permittivity of medium

Let electric field due to charge q be F1 and -q be F2

I is the distance of P from q and also from charge -q

⇒

F1=\frac{1}{4\times(pie)\times\text{E}} \times\frac{q}{I^{2} }

F2=\frac{1}{4\times(pie)\times\text{E}} \times\frac{-q}{I^{2} }

⇒

F1+F2=\frac{1}{4\times(pie)\times\text{E}} \times\frac{q}{I^{2} }+\frac{1}{4\times(pie)\times\text{E}} \times\frac{-q}{I^{2} }

8 0
3 years ago
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