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KiRa [710]
2 years ago
7

Given x = 67 and y = 18, use two's complement to calculate:(1)x+y (2) x-y (3)-x+y (4)-x-y. Do the calculation, show the results

in 8­-bit two's complement binary form first, then convert the results into decimal (For negative decimal numbers enter a minus sign. For positive decimal numbers, however, do NOT enter a plus sign).
(a) x + y =
(b) x - y =

Engineering
1 answer:
joja [24]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

See attachment

Explanation:

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2 years ago
An electric field is expressed in rectangular coordinates by E = 6x2ax + 6y ay +4az V/m.Find:a) VMN if point M and N are specifi
Fittoniya [83]

Answer:

a.) -147V

b.) -120V

c.) 51V

Explanation:

a.) Equation for potential difference is the integral of the electrical field from a to b for the voltage V_ba = V(b)-V(a).

b.) The problem becomes easier to solve if you draw out the circuit. Since potential at Q is 0, then Q is at ground. So voltage across V_MQ is the same as potential at V_M.

c.) Same process as part b. Draw out the circuit and you'll see that the potential a point V_N is the same as the voltage across V_NP added with the 2V from the other box.

Honestly, these things take practice to get used to. It's really hard to explain this.

3 0
3 years ago
Air modeled as an ideal gas enters a turbine operating at steady state at 1040 K, 278 kPa and exits at 120 kPa. The mass flow ra
gladu [14]

Answer:

a) T_{2}=837.2K

b) e=91.3 %

Explanation:

A) First, let's write the energy balance:

W=m*(h_{2}-h_{1})\\W=m*Cp*(T_{2}-T_{1})  (The enthalpy of an ideal gas is just function of the temperature, not the pressure).

The Cp of air is: 1.004 \frac{kJ}{kgK} And its specific R constant is 0.287 \frac{kJ}{kgK}.

The only unknown from the energy balance is T_{2}, so it is possible to calculate it. The power must be negative because the work is done by the fluid, so the energy is going out from it.

T_{2}=T_{1}+\frac{W}{mCp}=1040K-\frac{1120kW}{5.5\frac{kg}{s}*1.004\frac{kJ}{kgk}} \\T_{2}=837.2K

B) The isentropic efficiency (e) is defined as:

e=\frac{h_{2}-h_{1}}{h_{2s}-h_{1}}

Where {h_{2s} is the isentropic enthalpy at the exit of the turbine for the isentropic process. The only missing in the last equation is that variable, because h_{2}-h_{1} can be obtained from the energy balance  \frac{W}{m}=h_{2}-h_{1}

h_{2}-h_{1}=\frac{-1120kW}{5.5\frac{kg}{s}}=-203.64\frac{kJ}{kg}

An entropy change for an ideal gas with  constant Cp is given by:

s_{2}-s_{1}=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})-Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})

You can review its deduction on van Wylen 6 Edition, section 8.10.

For the isentropic process the equation is:

0=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})-Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})\\Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})

Applying logarithm properties:

ln((\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R} )=ln((\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})^{Cp} )\\(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R}=(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})^{Cp}\\(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R/Cp}=(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})\\T_{2}=T_{1}(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R/Cp}

Then,

T_{2}=1040K(\frac{120kPa}{278kPa})^{0.287/1.004}=817.96K

So, now it is possible to calculate h_{2s}-h_{1}:

h_{2s}-h_{1}}=Cp(T_{2s}-T_{1}})=1.004\frac{kJ}{kgK}*(817.96K-1040K)=-222.92\frac{kJ}{kg}

Finally, the efficiency can be calculated:

e=\frac{h_{2}-h_{1}}{h_{2s}-h_{1}}=\frac{-203.64\frac{kJ}{kg}}{-222.92\frac{kJ}{kg}}\\e=0.913=91.3 %

4 0
3 years ago
What happens to the duty cycle for a GMAW Gun when 75Ar/25COzgas
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6 0
2 years ago
A standard penetration test has been conducted on a coarse sand at a depth of 16 ft below the ground surface. The blow counts ob
scoray [572]

Solution :

Given :

The number of blows is given as :

0 - 6 inch = 4 blows

6 - 12 inch = 6 blows

12 - 18 inch = 6 blows

The vertical effective stress $=1500 \ lb/ft^2$

                                              $= 71.82 \ kN/m^2$

                                             $ \sim 72 \ kN/m^2 $

Now,

$N_1=N_0 \left(\frac{350}{\bar{\sigma}+70} \right)$

$N_1 = $ corrected N - value of overburden

$\bar{\sigma}=$ effective stress at level of test

0 - 6 inch, $N_1=4 \left(\frac{350}{72+70} \right)$

                      = 9.86

6 - 12 inch, $N_1=6 \left(\frac{350}{72+70} \right) $

                        = 14.8

12 - 18 inch, $N_1=6 \left(\frac{350}{72+70} \right) $

                         = 14.8

$N_{avg}=\frac{9.86+14.8+14.8}{3}$

       = 13.14

       = 13

8 0
2 years ago
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