Answer:
a) v₁fin = 3.7059 m/s (→)
b) v₂fin = 1.0588 m/s (→)
Explanation:
a) Given
m₁ = 0.5 Kg
L = 70 cm = 0.7 m
v₁in = 0 m/s ⇒ Kin = 0 J
v₁fin = ?
h<em>in </em>= L = 0.7 m
h<em>fin </em>= 0 m ⇒ U<em>fin</em> = 0 J
The speed of the ball before the collision can be obtained as follows
Einitial = Efinal
⇒ Kin + Uin = Kfin + Ufin
⇒ 0 + m*g*h<em>in</em> = 0.5*m*v₁fin² + 0
⇒ v₁fin = √(2*g*h<em>in</em>) = √(2*(9.81 m/s²)*(0.70 m))
⇒ v₁fin = 3.7059 m/s (→)
b) Given
m₁ = 0.5 Kg
m₂ = 3.0 Kg
v₁ = 3.7059 m/s (→)
v₂ = 0 m/s
v₂fin = ?
The speed of the block just after the collision can be obtained using the equation
v₂fin = 2*m₁*v₁ / (m₁ + m₂)
⇒ v₂fin = (2*0.5 Kg*3.7059 m/s) / (0.5 Kg + 3.0 Kg)
⇒ v₂fin = 1.0588 m/s (→)
The branch of physics that deals with the study of force energy and motion is classic mechanics
If you draw the problem, it would look like that shown in the attached picture. The total length the ship will now travel can be solved using the Pythagorean theorem. The solution is as follows:
d = √(120)²+(100)²
d = 156.2 km
So, the ship will have to travel 156.2 km to the northwest direction.
Given what we know, despite not having the figure attached to the question, we can still confirm that the magnitude for the acceleration of the dancer will be zero.
<h3>Why is the dancer's acceleration equal to zero?</h3>
This has to do with how the question clarifies the speed of the dancer. Though it does not give us an exact value, we are told that the speed is constant. This is an indicator that the acceleration is zero because with any other value for acceleration the speed <u>cannot remain</u> constant.
Therefore, given that any value for acceleration will increase or decrease the speed of the dancer, but we are told that the dancer's speed is constant throughout the trip, we can confirm that the magnitude for the acceleration of the dancer is zero.
To learn more about acceleration visit;
brainly.com/question/12134554?referrer=searchResults
