a) To find the mass after t years:we will use this formula:
A = Ao / 2^n when A =the amount remaining
and Ao = the initial amount
and n = t / t(1/2)
by substitution:
∴ A = 200 mg/ 2^(t/30y)b) Mass after 90 y :by using the previous formula and substitute t by 90 y
A = 200mg/ 2^(90y/30y)
∴ A = 25 mgC) Time for 1 mg remaining:when A= Ao/ 2^(t/t(1/2)
so, by substitution:
1 mg = 200 mg / 2^(t/30y)
∴2^(t/30y) = 200 mg by solving for t
∴ t = 229 y
Answer:
PbMg
Explanation:
Because they both have a charge of 2+, they can be reduced and cancel each other out because 2 and 2 can be reduced to 1
It is a graph. It shows observations and then you record your results with any of the graph types.
Converting mmHg to atm is solved by division.
Example: Convert 745.0 to atm.
Solution- divide the mmHg value by the 760.0 mmHg / atm.
745 mmHg over 760.0 mmHg/atm
atm value is 0.980263
Now, I am a medical student and we have never had to convert a BP (blood pressure) to atm from mmHg, only ever kPA. SO, I am going to take a guess here and say that when you do the work to solve this, you are going to convert the Systolic (upper #) which is the 145. You should get 0.190789 and then convert the Diastolic (lower #) which is 65. You should get 0.08552632.
So your fraction so to speak should read, 0.190789/0.08552632 or 0.190789 over 0.08552632
(Just to note that is way to low of a BP, although it is irrelevant) Best wishes and good luck. "Remember, never just look for the right answer, look for why it is the right answer!"