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Mila [183]
3 years ago
8

You comb your hair and the comb becomes negatively charged. Strictly speaking, how will the mass of your hair change? A. it wil

increase B. it will decrease C. it wil not change
Physics
1 answer:
Step2247 [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

C. it will not change.

Explanation:

While combing, the rubbing of the comb with the hair, transfer of electron takes place from the hair to the comb and the comb becomes negatively charged. But, this transfer of electron does not make any considerable change in the mass of the hair. This is because the mass of an electron is highly negligible. Now, neglecting the mass of an electron, the transfer of the electrons from the hair to the comb makes charging of the comb, but no loss of mass in the hair. So, the mass of hair will no change.

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Hypothetically speaking, if an object were located at the center of the Earth, the gravitational force on that object due to the
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

D. ) The force would be zero newtons

Explanation:

Because

If you are at the center of the earth, gravity is zero because all the mass around you is pulling "up" (every direction there is up!)

So F=mg so if g is zero F is also zero

5 0
3 years ago
En Argentina en que deportes se realizan controles de doping
Ulleksa [173]

Answer:

madrid

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Which skateboarder has greater momentum?
Verizon [17]

Answer:

skateboard b

Explanation:

p=mv

skateboard a

p=(60kg)(1.5m/s)=90kg*m/s

skateboard b

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5 0
2 years ago
1. A mass is on a level plane, it has a weight of 20N. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction if an applied force
Arturiano [62]

Answer:

0.4

Explanation:

F-Fr=ma where F is applied force, Fr is friction, m is mass and a is acceleration.

Since the mass is moving with a constant velocity, there's no acceleration hence

F=Fr=\mu N where N is the weight of object and \mu is coefficient of kinetic friction.

F=\mu N and making [tex]\mu the subject

\mu=\frac {F}{N}

Substituting F for 8 N and N for 20 N

\mu=\frac {8}{20}=0.4

Therefore, coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.4

4 0
3 years ago
A 120 g, 8.0-cm-diameter gyroscope is spun at 1000 rpm and allowed to precess. What is the precession period?
dolphi86 [110]

To solve this problem we will derive the expression of the precession period from the moment of inertia of the given object. We will convert the units that are not in SI, and finally we will find the precession period with the variables found. Let's start defining the moment of inertia.

I = MR^2

Here,

M = Mass

R = Radius of the hoop

The precession frequency is given as

\Omega = \frac{Mgd}{I\omega}

Here,

M = Mass

g= Acceleration due to gravity

d = Distance of center of mass from pivot

I = Moment of inertia

\omega= Angular velocity

Replacing the value for moment of inertia

\Omega= \frac{MgR}{MR^2 \omega}

\Omega = \frac{g}{R\omega}

The value for our angular velocity is not in SI, then

\omega = 1000rpm (\frac{2\pi rad}{1 rev})(\frac{1min}{60s})

\omega = 104.7rad/s

Replacing our values we have that

\Omega = \frac{9.8m/s^2}{(8*10^{-2}m)(104.7rad)}

\Omega = 1.17rad/s

The precession frequency is

\Omega = \frac{2\pi rad}{T}

T = \frac{2\pi rad}{\Omega}

T = \frac{2\pi}{1.17}

T = 5.4 s

Therefore the precession period is 5.4s

7 0
2 years ago
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