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Scrat [10]
3 years ago
15

which has a greater kinetic energy, a bowling ball that has a mass of 5kg travelling at 6m/s, or a ship that has a mass of 12000

0kg and is moving at 0.02m/s?​
Physics
1 answer:
AVprozaik [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:bowling ball has greater kinetic energy

Explanation:

Kinetic energy of bowling ball:

mass=m=5kg

Velocity=v=6m/s

Kinetic energy =ke

Ke=0.5 x m x v x v

Ke=0.5 x 5 x 6 x 6

Ke=90J

Kinetic energy of ship:

mass=m=120000kg

velocity=v=0.02m/s

Ke=0.5 x m x v x v

Ke=0.5 x 120000 x 0.02 x 0.02

Ke=24J

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What is your wheel and axle
Crank

Answer:

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Explanation:

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8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If the mass of the ladder is 12.0 kgkg, the mass of the painter is 55.0 kgkg, and the ladder begins to slip at its base when her
Marysya12 [62]

Answer:

 μ = 0.336

Explanation:

We will work on this exercise with the expressions of transactional and rotational equilibrium.

Let's start with rotational balance, for this we set a reference system at the top of the ladder, where it touches the wall and we will assign as positive the anti-clockwise direction of rotation

          fr L sin θ - W L / 2 cos θ - W_painter 0.3 L cos θ  = 0

          fr sin θ  - cos θ  (W / 2 + 0,3 W_painter) = 0

          fr = cotan θ  (W / 2 + 0,3 W_painter)

Now let's write the equilibrium translation equation

     

X axis

        F1 - fr = 0

        F1 = fr

the friction force has the expression

       fr = μ N

Y Axis

       N - W - W_painter = 0

       N = W + W_painter

       

we substitute

      fr = μ (W + W_painter)

we substitute in the endowment equilibrium equation

     μ (W + W_painter) = cotan θ  (W / 2 + 0,3 W_painter)

      μ = cotan θ (W / 2 + 0,3 W_painter) / (W + W_painter)

we substitute the values ​​they give

      μ = cotan θ  (12/2 + 0.3 55) / (12 + 55)

      μ = cotan θ  (22.5 / 67)

      μ = cotan tea (0.336)

To finish the problem, we must indicate the angle of the staircase or catcher data to find the angle, if we assume that the angle is tea = 45

       cotan 45 = 1 / tan 45 = 1

the result is

    μ = 0.336

5 0
4 years ago
An electromagnetic flowmeter is useful when it is desirable not to interrupt the system in which the fluid is flowing (e.g. for
AURORKA [14]

Answer:

<em>2 m/s</em>

<em></em>

Explanation:

The electromagnetic flow-metre work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The induced voltage is given as

E = Blv

where E is the induced voltage = 2.88 mV = 2.88 x 10^-3 V

l is the distance between the electrodes in this field which is equivalent to the diameter of the tube = 1.2 cm = 1.2 x 10^-2 m

v is the velocity of the fluid through the field = ?

B is the magnetic field = 0.120 T

substituting, we have

2.88 x 10^-3 = 0.120 x 1.2 x 10^-2 x v

2.88 x 10^-3 = 1.44 x 10^-3 x v

v = 2.88/1.44 = <em>2 m/s</em>

8 0
4 years ago
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