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Kisachek [45]
2 years ago
8

All waves have wavelength, frequency, rest point, and speed. True or False?

Physics
2 answers:
nexus9112 [7]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

it is true

Explanation:

Damm [24]2 years ago
4 0
True otherwise it wouldn’t be a wave
You might be interested in
Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
2 years ago
Which state of matter would be described as a highly energized charge particles with moving extremely fast
Oksanka [162]
The correct answer is plasma
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
20. The speed of Light is 3.0 x 108 m/s. Blue Light has a frequency of 6.11 x 1014 Hz. What is its wavelength?
Sladkaya [172]

Answer:

4.91 x 10⁻⁷ m

Explanation:

the applicable formula is

v = fλ

where

v = velocity (i.e speed) = given as 3.0 x 10⁸ m/s

f = frequency = given asw 6.11 x 10¹⁴

λ = wavelength

if we rearrange the equation and substitute the values given above,

v = fλ

λ = v/f  

= 3.0 x 10⁸ / 6.11 x 10¹⁴

= 4.91 x 10⁻⁷ m

5 0
3 years ago
Two farmers are trying to move a large rock that sits in a field. They use a long stick as a lever and a brick as the fulcrum, a
kumpel [21]

D is the answer for usatestprep

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
three girls were pushing the same car with a net force of 450 N [N48°E]. Two of the girls were pushing with forces of 310 N [N25
ElenaW [278]

The net force is the vector

∑ F = (450 N) (cos(42°) i + sin(42°) j)

and two of the forces provided by the girls are

F₁ = (310 N) (cos(115°) i + sin(115°) j)

F₂ = (250 N) (cos(285°) i + sin(285°) j)

Then the force provided by the third girl is the vector

F₃ = ∑ F - F₁ - F₂

F₃ = ((450 N) cos(42°) - (310 N) cos(115°) - (250 N) cos(285°)) i

… … … + ((450 N) sin(42°) - (310 N) sin(115°) - (250 N) sin(285°)) j

F₃ ≈ (400.722 N) i + (261.635 N) j

So, the third girl provided a force of magnitude

||F₃|| = √((400.722 N)² + (261.635 N)²) ≈ 478.572 N ≈ 480 N

pointing in a direction

arctan((261.635 N)/(400.722 N)) ≈ 33.1409° ≈ 33°

relative to East which refers to 0°; that is, 33° N of E or E33°N. Since the other forces are given relative to North or South, we can write this direction as N57°E.

So, the third girl pushed with force 480 N [N57°E].

5 0
2 years ago
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