Ask question

Ask question

All categories

2 years ago

13

What is one way you can destroy a magnet’s magnetism?

1 answer:

Alekssandra [29.7K]2 years ago

7 0

-- heat the magnet red-hot in a flame
-- drop it on the floor several times, or beat it with a hammer
-- place it in a strong, rapidly alternating external magnetic field

You might be interested in

I am the particle that is so small that scientists treat me as though I have no mass. Scientists also figure that I probably spe

tatyana61 [14]

Answer:

its electrons

Explanation:

only electrons stays outside the nucleus unlike protons and neutrons and it has little to no mass

8 0

3 years ago

When making a turn, do not have the steering wheel turned in the direction of the turn before beginning the turning maneuver.a)

RideAnS [48]

Answer:

a) True.

Explanation:

If you turn the wheel in the direction of the turn before beginning the turning maneuver then it's possible that there might be not enough space available for turning and also if you are waiting for the traffic to get clear with rear ended then it will get pushed forward onto the coming traffic.

7 0

2 years ago

Coherent light that contains two wavelengths, 660 nm and 470 nm , passes through two narrow slits with a separation of 0.280 mm

bekas [8.4K]

Answer:

λ1 = 0.0129m = 1.29cm

λ2 = 0.00923m = 0.92 cm

Explanation:

To find the distance between the first order bright fringe and the central peak, can be calculated by using the following formula:

$y_m=\frac{m\lambda D}{d}$ (1)

m: order of the bright fringe = 1

λ: wavelength of the light = 660 nm, 470 nm

D: distance from the screen = 5.50 m

d: distance between slits = 0.280mm = 0.280 *10^⁻3 m

ym: height of the m-th fringe

You replace the values of the variables in the equation (1) for each wavelength:

For λ = 660 nm = 660*10^-9 m

$y_1=\frac{(1)(660*10^{-9}m)(5.50m)}{0.280*10^{-3}m}=0.0129m=1.29cm$

For λ = 470 nm = 470*10^-9 m

$y_1=\frac{(1)(470*10^{-9}m)(5.50m)}{0.280*10^{-3}m}=0.00923m=0.92cm$

7 0

2 years ago

A piston-cylinder device contains Helium gas initially at 150 kPa, 20 o C, and 0.5m 3 . The helium is now compressed in a polytr

Molodets [167]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given

$P_1=150 kPa$

$T_1=20^{\circ}C$

$V_1=0.5 m^3$

$T_2=140^{\circ}C$

$P_2=400 kPa$

R for Helium $R=2.076$

$c_v=3.115 kJ/kg-K$

mass of gas $m=\frac{P_1V_1}{RT_1}$

$m=\frac{150\times 0.5}{2.076\times 293}$

$m=0.123 kg$

Similarly $V_2$ can be found

$\frac{P_1V_1}{T_1}=\frac{P_2V_2}{T_2}$

$V_2=0.264 m^3$

Work done $W=\int_{V_1}^{V_2}PdV$

$W=\frac{P_2V_2-P_1V_1}{n-1}$

$W=\frac{mR(T_2_T_1)}{n-1}$

Since it is a polytropic Process

therefore $PV^n=c$

$P_1V_1^n=P_2V_2^n$

$(\frac{V_1}{V_2})^n=\frac{P_2}{P_1}$

$(\frac{0.5}{0.264})^n=\frac{400}{150}$

$n=\frac{\ln 2.66}{\ln 1.893}$

$n=1.533$

$W=\frac{0.123\times 2.076(140-20)}{1.533-1}$

$W=57.48 kJ$

From Energy balance

$E_{in}-E_{out}=\Delta E_{system}$

Neglecting kinetic and Potential Energy change

$Q_{in}+W_{in}=change\ in\ Internal\ Energy$

Change in Internal Energy $\Delta U=u_2-u_1$

$\Delta U=mc_v(T_2-T_1)$

$\Delta U=0.123\times 3.115(140-20)$

$\Delta U=45.977 kJ$

$Q_{in}+57.48=45.977$

$Q_{in}=-11.50 kJ$

i.e. Heat is being removed

3 0

2 years ago

Can someone plz help me DUE TOMORROW

aksik [14]

Hey the answer to the question is
m = 0.40

3 0

2 years ago