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Kamila [148]
3 years ago
6

Pls hurry

Engineering
1 answer:
sergey [27]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:The answer is Potassium!

Explanation: This is true because each label should tell you about the available amount of a certain element. The standard order is Nitrogen-Phosphorus-Potassium. They are referred to by their standard abbreviations in the periodic table. One problem with fertilizer labels are that they are only required to disclose the amounts of macronutrients (or Nitrogen-Phosphorus-Potassium.)

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Hãy trình bày các bộ phận chính trong một bộ điều khiển điện tử (ECU) dùng trên ô tô. Cho biết công dụng của từng thành phần.
mestny [16]

Answer:

sorry but I can't understand this Language.

Explanation:

unable to answer sorry

5 0
3 years ago
Given a force of 72 lbs at a distance of 15 ft, calculate the moment produced.​
Elis [28]

Answer:

1425.78 N.m

Explanation:

Moments of force is calculated as ;

Moments= Force * distance

M= F*d

The S.I unit for moment of force is Newton-meter (N.m)

Given in the question;

Force = 72 lbs

1 pound = 4.45 N

72 lbs = 4.45 * 72=320.4 N

Distance= 15 ft

1ft= 0.3048 m

15 ft = 15*0.3048 = 4.57 m

d= 4.57 m

M= F*d

M=320.4*4.57 =1425.78 N.m

5 0
3 years ago
Water enters a tank from two pipes, one with a flow rate of 0.3 kg/s and the other with a flow rate of 0.1 kg / s. The tank has
stiks02 [169]

Answer:

total amount of water after 2 min will be 84.4 kg/s

Explanation:

Given data:

one tank inflow = 0.1 kg/s

2nd tank inflow = 0.3 kg/s

3rd tank outflow = 0.03 kg/s

Total net inflow in tank is = 0.3 +0.1 =0.4 kg/s

From third point, outflow is 0.03 kg/s

Therefore, resultant in- flow = 0.4 - 0.03

Resultant inflow is  = 0.37 kg/s

Tank has initially 40 kg water

In 2 min ( 2*60 sec), total inflow in tank is 0.37*60*2 = 44.4 kg

So, total amount of water after 2 min will be = 40+44.4 = 84.4 kg

8 0
3 years ago
Determine the voltages at all nodes and the currents through all branches. Assume that the transistor B is 100,
iren [92.7K]

Answer:

The voltages of all nodes are, IE = 4.65 mA, IB =46.039μA,  IC=4.6039 mA, VB = 10v, VE =10.7, Vc =4.6039 v

Explanation:

Solution

Given that:

V+ = 20v

Re = 2kΩ

Rc = 1kΩ

Now we will amke use of the method KVL in the loop.

= - Ve + IE . Re + VEB + VB = 0

Thus

IE = V+ -VEB -VB/Re

Which gives us the following:

IE = 20-0.7 - 10/2k

= 9.3/2k

so, IE = 4.65 mA

IB = IE/β +1 = 4.65 m /101

Thus,

IB = 0.046039 mA

IB = 46.039μA

IC =βIB

Now,

IC = 100 * 0.046039

IC is 4.6039 mA

Now,

VB = 10v

VE = VB + VEB

= 10 +0.7 = 10.7 v

So,

Vc =Ic . Rc = 4.6039 * 1k

=4.6039 v

Finally, this is the table summary from calculations carried out.

Summary Table

Parameters          IE       IC           IB            VE       VB         Vc

Unit                     mA     mA          μA            V           V          V

Value                  4.65    4.6039   46.039    10.7      10     4.6039

4 0
3 years ago
A ceramic matrix composite contains internal flaws as large as 0.001 cm in length. The plane strain fracture toughness of the co
murzikaleks [220]

Since the applied stress required for failure due to crack propagation is still higher than 550 MPa, the ceramic is expected to fail due to overload and not because of the flaws

Explanation:

<u>Plane -Strain Fracture toughness is calculated as</u>

k_{IC}=fб\sqrt{\pi a}

F=geometry factor of the flaw

б=Stress applied

k_{IC}=Fracture toughness

a=Flaw size

<u>Given that </u>

Internal Flaw,a=0.001cm

Fracture Toughness k_{IC}=45MPa\sqrt{m}

Tensile Strength б=550 MPa

Geometry Factor,f=1

<u>Calculation</u>

An internal Flaw i s 0.001 cm

2a=0.001cm

a=0

6 0
3 years ago
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