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swat32
3 years ago
8

Assessment started: undefined.

Physics
1 answer:
mylen [45]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

conversion of momentum

Explanation:

i took the test

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How could you increase the potential energy of the apple?
VMariaS [17]
By putting an apple up on high ground. (That is 1 example)
This creates a higher gravitational force, and when it falls down it would have a lot of kinetic energy. But, if put on low ground, it wouldn't have enough potential energy to increase the kinetic energy.
7 0
3 years ago
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According to newton's second law, if you have an object that is put under acceleration due to a force, how could you reduce the
expeople1 [14]

Answer:

We could reduce the force or increase the mass of the object.

Explanation:

Using the definition of force, according to Newton's second law,  (F = ma) the acceleration is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass. Therefore, if we want to reduce the acceleration of an object we have two options:

  1. We could reduce the force
  2. We could increase the mass

In both cases a will decrease.  

I hope it helps you!

7 0
3 years ago
A hoop and a solid disc are relased from rest
Murljashka [212]

Answer:

1) The hoop and a solid disc rolling without slipping down an incline plane.

Their final velocities are proportional to their moment of inertia.

The condition for moment of inertia: v = ωR

We will use conservation of energy.

<u>For the hoop:</u>

K_1 + U_1 = K_2 + U_2\\0 + m_hgh = \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2 + \frac{1}{2}I\omega_h^2 + 0

They are released from rest, so their initial kinetic energy is zero. And when they reach the bottom, their final potential energy is also zero.

The moment of inertia of a hoop is

I_h = m_hR^2

Let's continue with the energy equations:

m_h gh = \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2 + \frac{1}{2}(m_hR^2)(\frac{v_h^2}{R^2})\\m_hgh = \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2 + \frac{1}{2}m_hv_h^2\\m_hgh = m_hv_h^2\\v_h = \sqrt{gh}

Similarly <u>for the solid disk</u> with a moment of inertia of (1/2)mR^2:

K_1 + U_1 = K_2 + U_2\\m_dgh = \frac{1}{2}m_dv_d^2 + \frac{1}{2}I_d\omega_d^2\\m_dgh = \frac{1}{2}m_dv_d^2 + \frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{2}m_dR^2)(\frac{v_d^2}{R^2})\\m_dgh = \frac{1}{2}m_dv_d^2 + \frac{1}{4}m_dv_d^2\\m_dgh = \frac{3}{4}m_dv_d^2\\v_d = \sqrt{\frac{4gh}{3}}

Comparing the final velocities, we can conclude that the solid disk reaches the bottom first.

2) The angular acceleration of the pebble is equal to the angular acceleration of the tire, since they stuck together. We can deduce the angular acceleration of the tire from the linear acceleration of the bicycle.

The kinematics equations states that

v = v_0 + at\\4.47 = 0 + 2a\\a = 2.235 ~m/s^2

where a is the linear acceleration.

The relation with the angular and linear acceleration is

a = \alpha R

where R is the radius of the tire. Since it is not given in the question, we will leave it as R.

The angular acceleration of the small pebble is

\alpha = 2.235/R ~m/s^2

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Energy that tracked in waves though matter is?
kolbaska11 [484]

Answer:

sound eneegy pls

brainly

8 0
3 years ago
Newton's law of cooling states that the rate of change of temperature of an object in a surrounding medium is proportional to th
Nastasia [14]

Answer:

T =  40 +  e^{3.68t} e^{2.99}

Explanation:

The differential equation for given  is given as

\frac{dT}{dt} = - k(T-T_s)

integrating above equation we have

ln(T-T_s) = -kt + C

At t = 0 , T(0) =  60

ln(60- 40) = -k\times 0 + C

2.99 = C

 At t =1 , T(1) = 40.49887

ln(40.49787 - 40) = -k\times 1 +  2.99

- k = -3.687

So we have

T- 40  = e^{3.68t + 2.99}

T =  40 +  e^{3.68t} e^{2.99}

4 0
3 years ago
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