How are transverse and longitudinal waves the same?

Tawny notices that Jim has been forgetting to check two forms of

juin [17]

I think the answer is c but I’m not sure

6 0

2 years ago

In which one of the following situations is zero net work done? A) A ball rolls down an inclined plane. B) A physics student str

lidiya [134]

Answer:

Option D

Explanation:

The work done can be given by the mechanical energy used to do work, i.e., Kinetic energy and potential energy provided to do the work.

In all the cases, except option D, the energy provided to do the useful work is not zero and hence work done is not zero.

In option D, the box is being pulled with constant velocity, making the acceleration zero and thus Kinetic energy of the system is zero. Hence work done in this case is zero.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A uniform marble rolls down a symmetrical bowl, start- ing from rest at the top of the left side. The top of each side is a dist

Paha777 [63]

Answer:

Part a)

$h' = \frac{10}{14} h$

Part b)

if both sides are rough then it will reach the same height on the other side because the energy is being conserved.

Part c)

Since marble will go to same height when it is rough while when it is smooth then it will go to the height

$h' = \frac{10}{14} h$

so on smooth it will go to lower height

Explanation:

As we know by energy conservation the total energy at the bottom of the bowl is given as

$\frac{1}{2} mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}I\omega^2 = mgh$

here we know that on the left side the ball is rolling due to which it is having rotational and transnational both kinetic energy

now on the right side of the bowl there is no friction

so its rotational kinetic energy will not change and remains the same

so it will have

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = mgh'$

now we know that

$I = \frac{2}{5}mr^2$

$\omega = \frac{v}{r}$

so we have

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}(\frac{2}{5}mr^2)(\frac{v}{r})^2 = mgh$

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{5}mv^2 = mgh$

$\frac{7}{10}mv^2 = mgh$

$\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{10}{14}mgh$

so the height on the smooth side is given as

$h' = \frac{10}{14} h$

Part b)

if both sides are rough then it will reach the same height on the other side because the energy is being conserved.

Part c)

Since marble will go to same height when it is rough while when it is smooth then it will go to the height

$h' = \frac{10}{14} h$

so on smooth it will go to lower height

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Which explains the information needed to calculate speed and velocity?

Anestetic [448]

Both require time, but velocity requires displacement and speed requires distance.

Explanation:

Speed and velocity are two different quantities. In fact:

- Speed is a scalar quantity, which gives a measure of how fast an object is moving, regardless of its direction. Therefore, it only has a magnitude, which is given by the ratio between distance covered and time taken:

$s=\frac{distance}{time}$

Therefore, speed does not take into account the direction of motion.

- Velocity, on the other hand, is a vector quantity, so it has magnitude and a direction.

The magnitude of the velocity is given by

$v=\frac{displacement}{time}$

where displacement is a vector connecting the initial point with the final point of motion of an object.

The direction of the velocity corresponds to the direction of the displacement.

It must be noted also that in certain situations, the average velocity is zero, while the speed is not zero: for example, for an object completing a circle in a certain time interval, its speed is not zero, while its velocity is zero (because the object returns to the starting point, so the displacement is zero.

Therefore, the correct answer is

Both require time, but velocity requires displacement and speed requires distance.

Learn more about speed and velocity:

brainly.com/question/8893949

brainly.com/question/5063905

brainly.com/question/5248528

#LearnwithBrainly

3 0

3 years ago

Which would have the longer orbital period: a moon 1 million km from the center of Jupiter, or a moon 1 million km from the cent

Harman [31]

Answer:

earth

Explanation:

The formula for the orbital period of the moon is given by

$T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{r}{g}}$

As the time period is inversely proportional to the square root of the acceleration due to gravity of the planet.

As the value of acceleration due to gravity on Jupiter is more than the earth, so the period of moon around the earth is large as compared to the period of the moon around the Jupiter when the distance is same.

5 0

3 years ago