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otez555 [7]
3 years ago
13

How would gravity cause planets to move if they did not have inertia?

Physics
2 answers:
steposvetlana [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: C.

Explanation: A-pe-x

daser333 [38]3 years ago
4 0
I’d think the answer would be C. i’m just kinda guessing but my thought process is this (as simply as i can put it because physics is confusing):

so for example say you throw a ball across a flat surface. inertia is what keeps the ball rolling straight in a line, so unless you were to maybe put your hand in front of the ball or something, it would just go straight forever.

this is what happens with the planets. they go in a straight line, but since there’s gravity, the planets are also being pulled towards the sun. so gravity and inertia are why the planets orbit in the circle pattern they do. so when we remove inertia, we’re removing the state in which the planets keep going straight while being pulled towards a center point (the sun). this causes gravity to be the only factor in the planets orbiting. so that being said, the planets would just be pulled towards the sun. :)
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Five groups of four vectors are shown below. All magnitudes of individual vectors are equal. Please rank the groups based on the
valkas [14]

With the addition of vectors we can find that the correct answer is:

   C)   Q> P > R =  S > T

The addition of vectors must be done taking into account that they have modulus and direction. The analytical method is one of the easiest methods, the method to do it is:

  • Set a Cartesian coordinate system
  • Decompose vectors into their components in a Cartesian system
  • Perform the algebraic sums on each axis
  • Find the resultant vector using the Pythagoras' Theorem to find the modulus and trigonometry to find the direction.

In this exercise indicate that the modulus of all vectors is the same, suppose that the value of the modulus is A.

We fix a Cartesian coordinate system with the horizontal x axis and the vertical y axis, we can see that we do not need to perform any decomposition, so we perform the algebraic sums

Diagram P

x-axis

         x = 2A

y-axis  

         y = 2A

The modulus of the resulting vector can be found with the Pythagorean Theorem

          P = \sqrt{x^2+y^2}

          P = \sqrt{4A^2 +4A^2 }= \sqrt{8}  \  A

          P = 2 √2  A

         

Diagram Q

x-axis

        x = 3A

y-axis  

        y = A

Resulting

       Q = \sqrt{x^2+y^2}

       Q =\sqrt{9A^2 + A^2 }  

       Q = \sqrt{10} \ A

       

Diagram R

x- axis

       x = 0

y-axis

        y = 2 A

Resulting

       R =\sqrt{4A^2 + 0}  

       R = \sqrt{4} \ A

Diagram S

x-axis

       x = 2 A

y-axis

        y = 0

 

Resulting

       S = 2A

Diagram T

x- axis

      x = 0

y-axis  

      y = 0

Resultant T = 0

We order the diagram from highest to lowest

    Q> P> R = S> T

When reviewing the different answers, the correct one is:

   C.  Q> P> R = S> T

Learn more about adding vectors here:

brainly.com/question/14748235

5 0
2 years ago
A rock is thrown from a bridge at an angle 30∘ below horizontal.immediately after the rock is released, is the magnitude of its
Wittaler [7]
<span>The magnitude of the rock is equal to g. After the rock is released, there are no more forces acting on it, yet gravity remains. The initial inputs, on a bridge, at an angle of 30 deg below horizontal do not matter after the release.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
The pulley system has a mechanical advantage of 5. Determine how much input force is required to achieve 1000 N of lifting force
olga55 [171]

Answer:

Input force of pulley system = 200 N

Explanation:

Given:

Mechanical advantage of pulley system = 5

Output force from pulley system = 1,000 N

Find;

Input force of pulley system

Computation:

Mechanical advantage = Output force / Input force

Mechanical advantage of pulley system = Output force from pulley system / Input force of pulley system

5 = 1,000 / Input force of pulley system

Input force of pulley system = 1,000 / 5

Input force of pulley system = 200 N

3 0
3 years ago
An alien spaceship traveling at 0.600 c toward the Earth launches a landing craft. The landing craft travels in the same directi
Arturiano [62]

The kinetic energy as measured in the Earth reference frame is 6.704*10^22 Joules.

To find the answer, we have to know about the Lorentz transformation.

<h3>What is its kinetic energy as measured in the Earth reference frame?</h3>

It is given that, an alien spaceship traveling at 0.600 c toward the Earth, in the same direction the landing craft travels with a speed of 0.800 c relative to the mother ship. We have to find the kinetic energy as measured in the Earth reference frame, if the landing craft has a mass of 4.00 × 10⁵ kg.

                  V_x'=0.8c\\V=0.6c\\m=4*10^5kg

  • Let us consider the earth as S frame and space craft as S' frame, then the expression for KE will be,

                  KE=m_0c^2=\frac{mc^2}{1-(\frac{v_x^2}{c^2} )}

  • So, to V_x=(0.8+0.6)c-[\frac{0.6c*(0.8c)^2}{c^2}]=1.016find the KE, we have to find the value of speed of the approaching landing craft with respect to the earth frame.
  • We have an expression from Lorents transformation for relativistic law of addition of velocities as,

                      V_x'=\frac{V_x-V}{1-\frac{VV_x}{c^2} } \\thus,\\V_x=V_x'(1-\frac{VV_x}{c^2} )+V

  • Substituting values, we get,

          V_x=0.8c(1-\frac{0.8c*0.6c}{c^2} )+0.6c=(0.8c*0.52)+0.6c=1.016c

  • Thus, the KE will be,

              KE=\frac{4*10^5*(3*10^8)^2}{\sqrt{1-\frac{(1.016c)^2}{c^2} } } =\frac{1.2*10^{22}}{0.179}=6.704*10^{22}J

Thus, we can conclude that, the kinetic energy as measured in the Earth reference frame is 6.704*10^22 Joules.

Learn more about frame of reference here:

brainly.com/question/20897534

SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
Children in a tree house lift a small dog in a basket 4.00 m up to their house. If it takes 187 J of work to do this, what is th
Vika [28.1K]
A=Fh
A - work
F - force
h - distance

F=mg
m - mass (god+basket)

so
A=mgh
187 = m*10*4
187=40m
m=187/40
m=4.675 kg
or 4kg and 675g

pretty small dog...
6 0
3 years ago
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