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damaskus [11]
3 years ago
8

Volume of sale (i.e., the number of parts sold) is a factorwhen determining which

Engineering
1 answer:
nadya68 [22]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: N has to be lesser than or equal to 1666.

Explanation:

Cost of parts N in FPGA = $15N

Cost of parts N in gate array = $3N + $20000

Cost of parts N in standard cell = $1N + $100000

So,

15N < 3N + 20000 lets say this is equation 1

(cost of FPGA lesser than that of gate array)

 Also. 15N < 1N + 100000  lets say this is equation 2  

(cost of FPGA lesser than that of standardcell)

Now

From equation 1

12N < 20000

N < 1666.67

From equation 2

14N < 100000

N < 7142.85

AT the same time, Both conditions must hold true

So N <= 1666 (Since N has to be an integer)

N has to be lesser than or equal to 1666.

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ratelena [41]

Answer:

because there is a bomb

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please answer fast. With full step by step solution.​
lina2011 [118]

Let <em>f(z)</em> = (4<em>z </em>² + 2<em>z</em>) / (2<em>z </em>² - 3<em>z</em> + 1).

First, carry out the division:

<em>f(z)</em> = 2 + (8<em>z</em> - 2) / (2<em>z </em>² - 3<em>z</em> + 1)

Observe that

2<em>z </em>² - 3<em>z</em> + 1 = (2<em>z</em> - 1) (<em>z</em> - 1)

so you can separate the rational part of <em>f(z)</em> into partial fractions. We have

(8<em>z</em> - 2) / (2<em>z </em>² - 3<em>z</em> + 1) = <em>a</em> / (2<em>z</em> - 1) + <em>b</em> / (<em>z</em> - 1)

8<em>z</em> - 2 = <em>a</em> (<em>z</em> - 1) + <em>b</em> (2<em>z</em> - 1)

8<em>z</em> - 2 = (<em>a</em> + 2<em>b</em>) <em>z</em> - (<em>a</em> + <em>b</em>)

so that <em>a</em> + 2<em>b</em> = 8 and <em>a</em> + <em>b</em> = 2, yielding <em>a</em> = -4 and <em>b</em> = 6.

So we have

<em>f(z)</em> = 2 - 4 / (2<em>z</em> - 1) + 6 / (<em>z</em> - 1)

or

<em>f(z)</em> = 2 - (2/<em>z</em>) (1 / (1 - 1/(2<em>z</em>))) + (6/<em>z</em>) (1 / (1 - 1/<em>z</em>))

Recall that for |<em>z</em>| < 1, we have

\displaystyle\frac1{1-z}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty z^n

Replace <em>z</em> with 1/<em>z</em> to get

\displaystyle\frac1{1-\frac1z}=\sum_{n=0}^\infty z^{-n}

so that by substitution, we can write

\displaystyle f(z) = 2 - \frac2z \sum_{n=0}^\infty (2z)^{-n} + \frac6z \sum_{n=0}^\infty z^{-n}

Now condense <em>f(z)</em> into one series:

\displaystyle f(z) = 2 - \sum_{n=0}^\infty 2^{-n+1} z^{-(n+1)} + 6 \sum_{n=0}^\infty z^{-n-1}

\displaystyle f(z) = 2 - \sum_{n=0}^\infty \left(6+2^{-n+1}\right) z^{-(n+1)}

\displaystyle f(z) = 2 - \sum_{n=1}^\infty \left(6+2^{-(n-1)+1}\right) z^{-n}

\displaystyle f(z) = 2 - \sum_{n=1}^\infty \left(6+2^{2-n}\right) z^{-n}

So, the inverse <em>Z</em> transform of <em>f(z)</em> is \boxed{6+2^{2-n}}.

4 0
3 years ago
In C++ the declaration of floating point variables starts with the type name float or double, followed by the name of the variab
zubka84 [21]

Answer:

The given grammar is :

S = T V ;

V = C X

X = , V | ε

T = float | double

C = z | w

1.

Nullable variables are the variables which generate ε ( epsilon ) after one or more steps.

From the given grammar,

Nullable variable is X as it generates ε ( epsilon ) in the production rule : X -> ε.

No other variables generate variable X or ε.

So, only variable X is nullable.

2.

First of nullable variable X is First (X ) = , and ε (epsilon).

L.H.S.

The first of other varibles are :

First (S) = {float, double }

First (T) = {float, double }

First (V) = {z, w}

First (C) = {z, w}

R.H.S.

First (T V ; ) = {float, double }

First ( C X ) = {z, w}

First (, V) = ,

First ( ε ) = ε

First (float) = float

First (double) = double

First (z) = z

First (w) = w

3.

Follow of nullable variable X is Follow (V).

Follow (S) = $

Follow (T) = {z, w}

Follow (V) = ;

Follow (X) = Follow (V) = ;

Follow (C) = , and ;

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
X cotx expansion using maclaurins theorem.
Lemur [1.5K]

It is to be noted that it is impossible to find the Maclaurin Expansion for F(x) = cotx.

<h3>What is Maclaurin Expansion?</h3>

The Maclaurin Expansion is a Taylor series that has been expanded around the reference point zero and has the formula f(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

<h3>What is the explanation for the above?</h3>

as indicated above, the Maclaurin infinite series expansion is given as:

F(x)=f(0)+f′. (0) 1! x+f″ (0) 2! x2+⋯+f[n](0)n!

If F(0) = Cot 0

F(0) = ∝ = 1/0

This is not definitive,

Hence, it is impossible to find the Maclaurin infinite series expansion for F(x) = cotx.

Learn more about Maclaurin Expansion at;
brainly.com/question/7846182
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4 0
2 years ago
List and explain 4 factors you need to observe while stick welding to make a good “consistent” bead
ch4aika [34]

Answer:I don’t know this one

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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