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Nikolay [14]
2 years ago
12

Why is the perfect mechine is not possible in the real life?​

Physics
1 answer:
Vinvika [58]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Because the mechanical advantage of the machine is affected by friction and weight but velocity ratio is not. So, mechanical advantage is less than velocity rate. Thus, the machine's efficiency is less than 100% and can't be a perfect machine

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A beam of protons is directed in a straight line along the +z direction through a region of space in which there are crossed ele
IceJOKER [234]

Answer:

B = 7.6 T   direction of + x

Explanation:

For the proton beam to continue in the same direction the electric and magnetic forces must be equal

              F_{m} - F_{e} = 0

              F_{m} = F_{e}

              Fm = q E

             

The electric force is in the direction of the electric field because it is the charge of the positive proton, the electric force goes in the direction of –y, therefore, the magnetic force cancels this force must go in the direction of + y

 The magnetic force is

             F_{m} = q v x B = q v B sin θ

             θ = 90

             B = q E / q v

             B = E / v

             B = 800/105

             B = 7.6 T

To find the direction of the magnetic field we use the right hand rule, the thumb goes in the direction of the proton velocity, the fingers extended in the direction of the magnetic field and the palm is the direction of force, for a positive charge.

Thumb goes in the direction of the + z axis

Palm in the direction of +y

Fingers point in the direction of + x

7 0
2 years ago
How many laws does newton have?
liq [111]
Newton has 3 Laws specifically The Three Laws of Motion
3 0
3 years ago
Two equal point charges QQQ are separated by a distance ddd. One of the charges is released and moves away from the other due on
lys-0071 [83]

Answer:

The kinetic energy K of the moving charge is K = 2kQ²/3d = 2Q²/(4πε)3d = Q²/6πεd

Explanation:

The potential energy due to two charges q₁ and q₂ at a distance d from each other is given by U = kq₁q₂/r.

Now, for the two charges q₁ = q₂ = Q separated by a distance d, the initial potential energy is U₁ = kQ²/d. The initial kinetic energy of the system K₁ = 0 since there is no motion of the charges initially. When the moving charge is at a distance of r = 3d, the potential energy of the system is U₂ = kQ²/3d and the kinetic energy is K₂.

From the law of conservation of energy, U₁ + K₁ = U₂ + K₂

So, kQ²/d + 0 = kQ²/3d + K

K₂ = kQ²/d - kQ²/3d = 2kQ²/3d

So, the kinetic energy K₂ of the moving charge is K₂ = 2kQ²/3d = 2Q²/(4πε)3d = Q²/6πεd

4 0
3 years ago
Help me I do not understand
ololo11 [35]

Answer:

170N

Explanation:

First add 530N to 150N and you get 680N, then add 400N to 450N and get 850N. So subtract 850N by 680N and you get 170N

4 0
3 years ago
At one instant, the center of mass of a system of two particles is located on the x-axis at 2.0 cm and has a velocity of (5.0 m/
Nata [24]

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

At one instant,

Center of mass is at 2m

Xcm = 2m

And velocity =5•i m/s

One of the particle is at the origin

M1=? X1 =0

The other has a mass M2=0.1kg

And it is at rest at position X2= 8m

a. Center of mass is given as

Xcm = (M1•X1 + M2•X2) / (M1+M2)

2 = (M1×0 + 0.1×8) /(M1 + 0.1)

2 = (0+ 0.8) /(M1 + 0.1)

Cross multiply

2(M1+0.1) = 0.8

2M1 + 0.2 =0.8

2M1 = 0.8-0.2

2M1 = 0.6

M1 = 0.6/2

M1 = 0.3kg

b. Total momentum, this is an inelastic collision and it momentum after collision is given as

P= (M1+M2)V

P = (0.3+0.1)×5•i

P = 0.4 × 5•i

P = 2 •i kgm/s

c. Velocity of particle at origin

Using conversation of momentum

Momentum before collision is equal to momentum after collision

P(before) = M1 • V1 + M2 • V2

We are told that M2 is initially at rest, then, V2=0

So, P(before) = 0.3V1

We already got P(after) = 2 •i kgm/s in part b of the question

Then,

P(before) = P(after)

0.3V1 = 2 •i

V1 = 2/0.3 •i

V1 = 6 ⅔ •i m/s

V1 = 6.667 •i m/s

4 0
3 years ago
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