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leonid [27]
3 years ago
6

Help me answer this question please!

Physics
2 answers:
Shkiper50 [21]3 years ago
7 0
Heat will be produced because of the friction from the tires
cluponka [151]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

c

Explanation:

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8. At what position does the mass have the greatest acceleration?
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

Option (e)

Explanation:

If a mass attached to a spring is stretched and released, it follows a simple harmonic motion.

In simple harmonic motion, velocity of the mass will be maximum, kinetic energy is maximum and acceleration is 0 at equilibrium position (at 0 position).

At position +A, mass will have the minimum kinetic energy, zero velocity and maximum acceleration.

Therefore, Option (e) will be the answer.

6 0
3 years ago
A forklift raises a 1,020 N crate 3.50 m up to a shelf. How much work is done by the forklift on the crate?
Anarel [89]

<em>Hope</em><em> </em><em>this</em><em> </em><em>will</em><em> </em><em>help</em><em> </em><em>u</em><em>.</em><em>.</em><em>:</em><em>)</em>

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
At the equator, the radius of the Earth is approximately 6370 km. A plane flies at a very low altitude at a constant speed of v
Anna007 [38]

To solve this problem we will apply the concepts related to the kinematic equations of linear motion. For this purpose we will define the speed as the distance traveled in a given period of time. Here the distance is equivalent to the orbit traveled around the earth, that is, a circle. Approaching the height of the aircraft with the radius of the earth, we will have the following data,

R= 6370*10^3 m

v = 219m/s

a = 17m/s^2

The circumference of the earth would be

\phi = 2\pi R

Velocity is defined as,

v = \frac{x}{t}

t = \frac{x}{v}

Herex = \phi, then

t = \frac{\phi}{v} = \frac{2\pi (6370*10^3)}{219}

t = 1.82*10^5s

Therefore will take 1.82*10^5 s or 506 hours, 19 minutes, 17 seconds

3 0
3 years ago
A pendulum of length L is suspended from the ceiling of an elevator. When the elevator is at rest the period of the pendulum is
Juliette [100K]

Answer:

Explanation:

When the pendulum falls freely the net acceleration due to gravity is zero.

As we know that the time period of simple pendulum is inversely proportional to the square root of acceleration due to gravity, thus the time period becomes infinity.

6 0
3 years ago
What would you get if you split a bar magnet in the middle?
ipn [44]

Answer:

I believe it's the first option

5 0
3 years ago
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