Yes that is correct. We know this because 4.00 x 10 4 Pa is constant. If you have 2.00×10−3m3 then you do the following: (2.00×10^−3)(4.00×10^<span> 4) = </span>8.00×10^−3. That is how you get your answer

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What advantages does an electromagnet have over a permanent magnet?

KonstantinChe [14]

Electromagnets can be turned off, this makes it easier to release things from the magnetic field.

Hope this helps :)

4 0

3 years ago

Example 3 :

kherson [118]

The friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 × 10^8 respectively. Also, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 × 10^8 respectively.

<h3>How to determine the friction factor</h3>

Using the formula

μ = viscosity = 0. 06 Pas

d = diameter = 120mm = 0. 12m

V = velocity = 1m/s and 3m/s

ρ = density = 0.9

a. Velocity = 1m/s

friction factor = 0. 52 × $\frac{0. 06}{0. 12* 1* 0. 9}$

friction factor = 0. 52 × $\frac{0. 06}{0. 108}$

friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 55

friction factor $= 0. 289$

b. When V = 3mls

Friction factor = 0. 52 × $\frac{0. 06}{0. 12 * 3* 0. 9}$

Friction factor = 0. 52 × $\frac{0. 06}{0. 324}$

Friction factor = 0. 52 × 0. 185

Friction factor $= 0.096$

Loss When V = 1m/s

Head loss/ length = friction factor × 1/ 2g × velocity^2/ diameter

Head loss = 0. 289 × $\frac{1}{2*6. 6743 * 10^-11}$ × $\frac{1^2}{0. 120}$ × $\frac{1}{100}$

Head loss = 1. 80 × 10^8

Head loss When V = 3m/s

Head loss = $0. 096$ × $\frac{1}{1. 334 *10^-10}$ × $\frac{3^2}{0. 120}$ × $\frac{1}{100}$

Head loss = 5. 3× 10^8

Thus, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 1m/s is 0.289 and 1.80 ×10^8 respectively also, the friction factor and head loss when velocity is 3m/s is 0.096 and 5.3 ×10^8 respectively.

Learn more about friction here:

brainly.com/question/24338873

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4 0

1 year ago