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1 year ago

If a bender can be used to bend 3/4-inch rmc, then it can also be used to bend__________emt.

Physics

1 answer:

USPshnik [31]1 year ago

3 0

A bender may also be used to bend 1-inch emt if it can bend 3/4-inch rmc.

<h3>A hand bender is what?</h3>

hand bender. a device with a diameter of no more than 1-1/4 in. that is used to bend EMT. To prevent crimping or flattening the conduit during bending, hand benders offer a radius that supports the conduit.

<h3>When would you utilize a hand bending device?</h3>

The user can produce very close bends with hockeys because they are 60% smaller than benders. Generally speaking, you should use a hand bender most of the time and reserve the hickey for when you need to create several really tight bends that a hand bender is unable to accomplish.

learn more about bender here

<u>brainly.com/question/9721733</u>

#SPJ4

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X-rays with an energy of 300 keV undergo Compton scattering from a target. If the scattered rays are detected at 30 relative to

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Answer:

a) $\Delta \lambda = \lambda' -\lambda_o = \frac{h}{m_e c} (1-cos \theta)$

For this case we know the following values:

$h = 6.63 x10^{-34} Js$

$m_e = 9.109 x10^{-31} kg$

$c = 3x10^8 m/s$

$\theta = 37$

So then if we replace we got:

$\Delta \lambda = \frac{6.63x10^{-34} Js}{9.109 x10^{-31} kg *3x10^8 m/s} (1-cos 37) = 4.885x10^{-13} m * \frac{1m}{1x10^{-15} m}= 488.54 fm$

b) $\lambda_0 = \frac{hc}{E_0}$

With $E_0 = 300 k eV= 300000 eV$

And replacing we have:

$\lambda_0 = \frac{1240 x10^{-9} eV m}{300000eV}=4.13 x10^{-12}m = 4.12 pm$

And then the scattered wavelength is given by:

$\lambda ' = \lambda_0 + \Delta \lambda = 4.13 + 0.489 pm = 4.619 pm$

And the energy of the scattered photon is given by:

$E' = \frac{hc}{\lambda'}= \frac{1240x10^{-9} eVm}{4.619x10^{-12} m}=268456.37 eV - 268.46 keV$

c) $E_f = E_0 -E' = 300 -268.456 kev = 31.544 keV$

Explanation

Part a

For this case we can use the Compton shift equation given by:

$\Delta \lambda = \lambda' -\lambda_0 = \frac{h}{m_e c} (1-cos \theta)$

For this case we know the following values:

$h = 6.63 x10^{-34} Js$

$m_e = 9.109 x10^{-31} kg$

$c = 3x10^8 m/s$

$\theta = 37$

So then if we replace we got:

$\Delta \lambda = \frac{6.63x10^{-34} Js}{9.109 x10^{-31} kg *3x10^8 m/s} (1-cos 37) = 4.885x10^{-13} m * \frac{1m}{1x10^{-15} m}= 488.54 fm$

Part b

For this cas we can calculate the wavelength of the phton with this formula:

$\lambda_0 = \frac{hc}{E_0}$

With $E_0 = 300 k eV= 300000 eV$

And replacing we have:

$\lambda_0 = \frac{1240 x10^{-9} eV m}{300000eV}=4.13 x10^{-12}m = 4.12 pm$

And then the scattered wavelength is given by:

$\lambda ' = \lambda_0 + \Delta \lambda = 4.13 + 0.489 pm = 4.619 pm$

And the energy of the scattered photon is given by:

$E' = \frac{hc}{\lambda'}= \frac{1240x10^{-9} eVm}{4.619x10^{-12} m}=268456.37 eV - 268.46 keV$

Part c

For this case we know that all the neergy lost by the photon neds to go into the recoiling electron so then we have this:

$E_f = E_0 -E' = 300 -268.456 kev = 31.544 keV$

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A uniformly charged, one-dimensional rod of length L has total positive charge Q. Itsleft end is located at x = ????L and its ri

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Answer:

$|\vec{F}| = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQ}{L}(\ln(L+x_0)-\ln(x_0))$

Explanation:

The force on the point charge q exerted by the rod can be found by Coulomb's Law.

$\vec{F} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{q_1q_2}{r^2}\^r$

Unfortunately, Coulomb's Law is valid for points charges only, and the rod is not a point charge.

In this case, we have to choose an infinitesimal portion on the rod, which is basically a point, and calculate the force exerted by this point, then integrate this small force (dF) over the entire rod.

We will choose an infinitesimal portion from a distance 'x' from the origin, and the length of this portion will be denoted as 'dx'. The charge of this small portion will be 'dq'.

Applying Coulomb's Law:

$d\vec{F} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qdq}{x + x_0}(\^x)$

The direction of the force on 'q' is to the right, since both charges are positive, and they repel each other.

Now, we have to write 'dq' in term of the known quantities.

$\frac{Q}{L} = \frac{dq}{dx}\\dq = \frac{Qdx}{L}$

Now, substitute this into 'dF':

$d\vec{F} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQdx}{L(x+x_0)}(\^x)$

Now we can integrate dF over the rod.

$\vec{F} = \int{d\vec{F}} = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQ}{L}\int\limits^{L}_0 {\frac{1}{x+x_0}} \, dx = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}\frac{qQ}{L}(\ln(L+x_0)-\ln(x_0))(\^x)$

4 0

3 years ago