All categories

2 years ago

Which step in the engineering design process does not come before building a prototype?

Engineering

1 answer:

Mariana [72]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step 1: Define. In this step, students formulate what they think about the problem. ...

Step 2: Ask. ...

Step 3: Imagine. ...

Step 4: Plan. ...

Step 5: Prototype. ...

Step 6: Test. ...

Step 7: Improve.

Explanation:

You might be interested in

Air modeled as an ideal gas enters a turbine operating at steady state at 1040 K, 278 kPa and exits at 120 kPa. The mass flow ra

gladu [14]

Answer:

a) $T_{2}=837.2K$

b) $e=91.3$ %

Explanation:

A) First, let's write the energy balance:

$W=m*(h_{2}-h_{1})\\W=m*Cp*(T_{2}-T_{1})$ (The enthalpy of an ideal gas is just function of the temperature, not the pressure).

The Cp of air is: 1.004 $\frac{kJ}{kgK}$ And its specific R constant is 0.287 $\frac{kJ}{kgK}$ .

The only unknown from the energy balance is $T_{2}$ , so it is possible to calculate it. The power must be negative because the work is done by the fluid, so the energy is going out from it.

$T_{2}=T_{1}+\frac{W}{mCp}=1040K-\frac{1120kW}{5.5\frac{kg}{s}*1.004\frac{kJ}{kgk}} \\T_{2}=837.2K$

B) The isentropic efficiency (e) is defined as:

$e=\frac{h_{2}-h_{1}}{h_{2s}-h_{1}}$

Where ${h_{2s}$ is the isentropic enthalpy at the exit of the turbine for the isentropic process. The only missing in the last equation is that variable, because $h_{2}-h_{1}$ can be obtained from the energy balance $\frac{W}{m}=h_{2}-h_{1}$

$h_{2}-h_{1}=\frac{-1120kW}{5.5\frac{kg}{s}}=-203.64\frac{kJ}{kg}$

An entropy change for an ideal gas with constant Cp is given by:

$s_{2}-s_{1}=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})-Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})$

You can review its deduction on van Wylen 6 Edition, section 8.10.

For the isentropic process the equation is:

$0=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})-Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})\\Rln(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})=Cpln(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})$

Applying logarithm properties:

$ln((\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R} )=ln((\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})^{Cp} )\\(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R}=(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})^{Cp}\\(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R/Cp}=(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}})\\T_{2}=T_{1}(\frac{P_{2}}{P_{1}})^{R/Cp}$

Then,

$T_{2}=1040K(\frac{120kPa}{278kPa})^{0.287/1.004}=817.96K$

So, now it is possible to calculate $h_{2s}-h_{1}$ :

$h_{2s}-h_{1}}=Cp(T_{2s}-T_{1}})=1.004\frac{kJ}{kgK}*(817.96K-1040K)=-222.92\frac{kJ}{kg}$

Finally, the efficiency can be calculated:

$e=\frac{h_{2}-h_{1}}{h_{2s}-h_{1}}=\frac{-203.64\frac{kJ}{kg}}{-222.92\frac{kJ}{kg}}\\e=0.913=91.3$ %

4 0

3 years ago

A 14 inch diameter pipe is decreased in diameter by 2 inches through a contraction. The pressure entering the contraction is 28

Delicious77 [7]

Answer:

5984.67N

Explanation:

A 14 inch diameter pipe is decreased in diameter by 2 inches through a contraction. The pressure entering the contraction is 28 psi and a pressure drop of 2 psi occurs through the contraction if the upstream velocity is 4.0 ft/sec. What is the magnitude of the resultant force (lbs) needed to hold the pipe in place?

from continuity equation

v1A1=v2A2

equation of continuity

v1=4ft /s=1.21m/s

d1=14 inch=.35m

d2=14-2=0.304m

A1=pi*d^2/4

0.096m^2

a2=0.0706m^2

from continuity once again

1.21*0.096=v2(0.07)

v2=1.65

force on the pipe

(p1A1- p2A2) + m(v2 – v1)

from bernoulli

p1 + ρv1^2/2 = p2 + ρv2^2/2

difference in pressure or pressure drop

p1-p2=2psi

13.789N/m^2=rho(1.65^2-1.21^2)/2

rho=21.91kg/m^3

since the pipe is cylindrical

pressure is egh

13.789=21.91*9.81*h

length of the pipe is

0.064m

AH=volume of the pipe(area *h)

the mass =rho*A*H

0.064*0.07*21.91

m=0.098kg

(193053*0.096- 179263.6* 0.07) + 0.098(1.65 – 1.21)

force =5984.67N

4 0

3 years ago

The underground cafe has an operating cash flow of $187,000 and a cash flow to creditors of $71,400 for the past year. During th

Serggg [28]

Answer:

cash flow to stockholders = $39,700

Explanation:

Operating cash flow = $187,000

cash flow to creditors = $71,400

Net working capital = $28,000

Net capital spending = $47,900

Cash flow to stockholders = ?

CFF = operating cash flow - net working capital - net capital spending

CFF = $187,000 - $28,000 - $47,900 = $111,100

CFF = cash flow to creditors + cash flow to stockholders

cash flow to stockholders = CFF - cash flow to creditors

cash flow to stockholders = $111,100 - $71,400 = $39,700

Hence $39,700 is the amount of the cash flow to stockholders for the last year.

3 0

3 years ago

Tech a says that the weight of the flywheel smoothest out the engines power pulses. Tech B says that the flexplate and torque co

lakkis [162]

Answer:

both statement is correct

Explanation:

Flywheel engine uses to reduce fluctuations.

And

FlexPlate is a metal disk that connects the output from the engine to the input of the torque converter. This will replace the flywheel

so that both statement is correct

4 0

3 years ago

Luợng hơi nước có lưu lượng 100kg/s ở áp suất đầu p;= 20bar, nhiệt độ đầu t; =400°C giãn nở đoạn nhiệt trong tuabin đến độ khô X

Valentin [98]

Answer:

Explanation:

3 0

3 years ago