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HACTEHA [7]
4 years ago
5

What is the effect of the workpiece specific cutting energy on the cutting forces, and why?

Engineering
1 answer:
ella [17]4 years ago
8 0

Explanation:

Specific cutting energy:

   It the ratio of power required to cut the material to metal removal rate of material.If we take the force required to cut the material is F and velocity of cutting tool is V then cutting power will be the product of force and the cutting tool velocity.

Power P = F x V

Lets take the metal removal rate =MRR

Then the specific energy will be

    sp=\dfrac{F\times V}{MRR}

If we consider that metal removal rate and cutting tool velocity is constant then when we increases the cutting force then specific energy will also increase.

You might be interested in
Ti-6Al-4V has a fracture toughness of 74.6 MPa-m0.5. How much stress (in MPa) would it take to fail a plate loaded in tension th
Nikitich [7]

Answer:

critical stress  = 595 MPa

Explanation:

given data

fracture toughness =  74.6 MPa-\sqrt{m}

crack length = 10 mm

f = 1

solution

we know crack length = 10 mm  

and crack length = 2a as given in figure attach

so 2a = 10

a = 5 mm

and now we get here with the help of plane strain condition , critical stress is express as

critical stress  = \frac{k}{f\sqrt{\pi a}}    ......................1

put here value and we get

critical stress  = \frac{74.6}{1\sqrt{\pi 5\times 10^{-3}}}

critical stress  = 595 MPa

so here stress is change by plane strain condition because when plate become thinner than condition change by plane strain to plain stress.

plain stress condition occur in thin body where stress through thickness not vary by the thinner section.

6 0
3 years ago
A sensor produces a signal with amplitude 15 mV. A voltage amplifier must amplify the signal such that the amplitude of the outp
Nady [450]

Answer:

42.50 dB

Explanation:

Determine the minimum voltage gain

amplitude of input signal ( Vi ) = 15 mV

amplitude of output signal ( Vo) = 2 V

Vo = 2 v

therefore ; minimum gain = Vo / Vi =  2 / ( 15 * 10^-3 )

                                                         = 133.33

Minimum gain in DB = 20 log ( 133.33 )

                                  = 42.498 ≈ 42.50 dB

8 0
3 years ago
How to find the voltage(B Aab) in series parallel circuit? ​
Sindrei [870]

Answer:

  Vab ≈ 3.426 V

Explanation:

First of all, it is convenient to find the equivalent parallel resistance of R5 and R6. That will be ...

  R56 = (R5)(R6)/(R5 +R6) = (1000)(1500)/(1000 +1500) = 600

Then we can call V1 the voltage at the top of R2. The voltage at Va is a divider from V1:

  Va = V1·(R4/(R3+R4)) = V1(560/1030) ≈ 0.543689V1

The voltage at Vb is also a divider from V1:

  Vb = V1·(R7+R8)/(R2 +R56 +R7 +R8) = V1(780/1710) ≈ 0.456140V1

The parallel branches containing Va and Vb have an effective resistance of ...

  (1030)(1710)/(1030+1710) = 642.81

That forms a divider with R1 to give V1:

  V1 = (100 V)642.81/(1000 +642.81) ≈ 39.1287 V

The difference Va-Vb is ...

  Vab = (39.1287 V)(0.543689 -0.456140) ≈ 3.426 V

_____

We have done this using parallel resistance and voltage divider calculations. You can also do it using node voltage equations. Using the same definition for V1 as above, we have ...

  (Vs -V1)/R1 +(Vb -V1)/(R56+R2) +(Va-V1)/R3 = 0

  (V1 -Vb)/(R56 +R2) -Vb/(R7+R8) = 0

  (V1 -Va)/R3 -Va/R4 = 0

The solution of interest is the value of Vab, shown in the attachment. It computes as 154200/45013 V ≈ 3.42568 V.

4 0
3 years ago
Three identical fatigue specimens (denoted A, B, and C) are fabricated from a nonferrous alloy. Each is subjected to one of the
Law Incorporation [45]

Answer:

B A and C

Explanation:

Given:

Specimen         σ_{max}                      σ_{min}

A                       +450                      -150

B                       +300                      -300

C                       +500                      -200

Solution:

Compute the mean stress

σ_{m} =  (σ_{max}  +  σ_{min})/2

σ_{mA} =  (450 + (-150)) / 2

       =  (450 - 150) / 2  

       = 300/2

σ_{mA} = 150 MPa

σ_{mB}  = (300 + (-300))/2

        = (300 - 300) / 2

        = 0/2  

σ_{mB}  = 0 MPa

 

σ_{mC}  = (500 + (-200))/2

        = (500 - 200) / 2

        = 300/2

σ_{mC}  = 150 MPa  

Compute stress amplitude:

σ_{a} =  (σ_{max}  -  σ_{min})/2    

σ_{aA} =  (450 - (-150)) / 2

       =  (450 + 150) / 2

       = 600/2

σ_{aA} = 300 MPa

σ_{aB} =  (300- (-300)) / 2

       =  (300 + 300) / 2

       = 600/2

σ_{aB}  = 300 MPa

σ_{aC}  = (500 - (-200))/2

        = (500 + 200) / 2

        = 700 / 2

σ_{aC}   = 350 MPa

From the above results it is concluded that the longest  fatigue lifetime is of specimen B because it has the minimum mean stress.

Next, the specimen A has the fatigue lifetime which is shorter than B but longer than specimen C.

In the last comes specimen C which has the shortest fatigue lifetime because it has the higher mean stress and highest stress amplitude.

7 0
4 years ago
What do we need to travel farther distances in space
kakasveta [241]

Answer

Definitely a

Explanation:

Because OK yes the space suit is necessary and everything but u can't get to space without the shuttle

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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