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PIT_PIT [208]
3 years ago
10

Why do we eat today

Physics
2 answers:
Dafna11 [192]3 years ago
6 0
We eat in order to survive
earnstyle [38]3 years ago
3 0
Because if we don't you'll be hungry, if you don't eat for about a month you'll die
You might be interested in
A solar cell has an open circuit voltage value of 0.60 V with a reverse saturation current density of Jo = 3.9 × 10−9 A/m2 . The
xenn [34]

Answer:

Explanation:

given data

ocv=0.6 V

Vmax= 0.52 v

J₀= 3.9*10⁻⁹

4 0
3 years ago
A friend rides, in turn, the rims of three fast merry-go-rounds while holding a sound source that emits isotropically at a certa
Aliun [14]

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

a

The Ranking of the curve according to their speed would be equal Rank because    v_1 =v_2 =v_3

b

 The first frequency would have a higher rank compared to the other two which will have the same ranking when ranked with respect to their angular velocities because

                                w_1 >w_2 = w_3  

c

The ranking of  the second third frequency would be the same but their ranking would be greater than that of the first frequency because

                          r_2 =r_3 >r_1

Explanation:

Mathematically Frequency can be represented as

                         F = \frac{v}{\lambda}

Where \lambda is the wavelength and v is the velocity

   Now looking at the diagram we see that

          For the  first frequency we have

             Let the wavelength be  \lambda_1 = \lambda , and the frequency  F_1 = F

           For  the second frequency

           Let the wavelength be  \lambda_2 = 2 \lambda , and the frequency F_2 = \frac{F}{2}

           For  the third frequency

           Let the wavelength be  \lambda_3 = 2\lambda ,  and the frequency F_3 = \frac{F}{2}

To obtain v for each of the frequency we make v the subject in the equation above for each frequency

  So,

        For the  first frequency we have

                                 v_1 = \lambda_1 F_1 = \lambda F

          For  the second frequency

                               v_2 = \lambda_2 F_2 = 2 \lambda*\frac{F} {2} = \lambda F      

           For  the third frequency

                               v_3 = \lambda_3 F_3 = 2 \lambda*\frac{F} {2} = \lambda F

Hence

The Ranking of the curve according to their speed would be equal Rank because    v_1 =v_2 =v_3

 Mathematically angular speed can be represented as

                           w = 2 \pi f

   For the  first frequency we have

                          w_1 = 2\pi F_1 = 2 \pi F                        

    For  the second frequency

                        w_2 = 2 \pi F_2 = 2 \pi \frac{F}{2}  = \pi F

     For  the third frequency

                      w_3 = 2 \pi F_3 = 2 \pi \frac{F}{2}  = \pi F  

 Hence

          The first frequency would have a higher rank compared to the other two which will have the same ranking when ranked with respect to their angular velocities because

                                w_1 >w_2 = w_3  

Mathematically the relationship between the angular velocity and the linear velocity can be represented as

                            v = wr

                    =>    r = \frac{v}{w}

 Since the linear velocity is constant we have that

                            r \  \alpha \  \frac{1}{w}

This means that r varies inversely to the angular velocity ,What this means for ranking due to the radius is that the ranking of  the second third frequency would be the same but their ranking would be greater than that of the first frequency because

                          r_2 =r_3 >r_1

       

5 0
3 years ago
Why were republicans able to dominate politics from 1860 until 1932?
snow_lady [41]

Answer:First the Republicans were dominant from 1860 to around 1882, then not again until 1920 time 1932. The reason for the first part is the Democratic party started a civil war to keep their slaves and the Democratic party lost that war.

Explanation:

This is what i found.

5 0
3 years ago
Newly discovered planet has twice the mass and three times the radius of the earth. What is the free-fall acceleration at its su
skad [1K]

Answer:

g_n=\dfrac{2}{9}g

Explanation:

M = Mass of Earth

G = Gravitational constant

R = Radius of Earth

The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is

g=\dfrac{GM}{R^2}

On new planet

g_n=\dfrac{G2M}{(3R)^2}\\\Rightarrow g_n=\dfrac{2GM}{9R^2}

Dividing the two equations we get

\dfrac{g_n}{g}=\dfrac{\dfrac{2GM}{9R^2}}{\dfrac{GM}{R^2}}\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{g_n}{g}=\dfrac{2}{9}\\\Rightarrow g_n=\dfrac{2}{9}g

The acceleration due to gravity on the other planet is g_n=\dfrac{2}{9}g

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Two light bulbs are 2.0 m apart. From what distance can these light bulbs be marginally resolved by a small telescope with a 4.5
andrezito [222]

Answer:

R = 1.2295 10⁵  m

Explanation:

After reading your problem they give us the diameter of the lens d = 4.50 cm = 0.0450 m, therefore if we use the Rayleigh criterion for the resolution in the diffraction phenomenon, we have that the minimum separation occurs in the first minimum of diffraction of one of the bodies m = 1 coincides with the central maximum of the other body

            θ = 1.22 λ / D

where the constant 1.22 leaves the resolution in polar coordinates and D is the lens aperture

             

how angles are measured in radians

          θ = y / R

where y is the separation of the two bodies (bulbs) y = 2 m and R the distance from the bulbs to the lens

            \frac{y}{R} = 1.22 \frac{ \lambda}{D}

            R = \frac{ y \ D}{1.22 \lambda}

let's calculate

            R = \frac{ 2 \ 0.045}{ 1.22 \ 600 \ 10^{-9}}

            R = 1.2295 10⁵  m

3 0
3 years ago
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