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3 years ago

Which image represents the force on a positively charged particle caused by an approaching magnet?

Physics

1 answer:

Amanda [17]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Image B represents the force on a positively charged particle caused by an approaching magnet.

Explanation:

The most fundamental law of magnetism is that like shafts repulse each other and dissimilar to posts pull in one another; this can without much of a stretch be seen by endeavoring to put like posts of two magnets together. Further attractive impacts additionally exist. On the off chance that a bar magnet is cut into two pieces, the pieces become singular magnets with inverse shafts. Also, pounding, warming or winding of the magnets can demagnetize them, on the grounds that such dealing with separates the direct game plan of the particles. A last law of magnetism alludes to maintenance; a long bar magnet will hold its magnetism longer than a short bar magnet. The domain theory of magnetism expresses that every single enormous magnet involve littler attractive districts, or domains. The attractive character of domains originates from the nearness of significantly littler units, called dipoles. Iotas are masterminded in such a manner in many materials that the attractive direction of one electron counteracts the direction of another; in any case, ferromagnetic substances, for example, iron are unique. The nuclear cosmetics of these substances is with the end goal that littler gatherings of particles unite as one into zones called domains; in these, all the electrons have the equivalent attractive direction.

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A Michelson interferometer uses light from a sodium lamp. Sodium atoms emit light having wavelengths 589.0 nm and 589.6 nm. The

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The distance mirror M2 must be moved so that one wavelength has produced one more new maxima than the other wavelength is;

L = 57.88 mm

We are given;

Wavelength 1; λ₁ = 589 nm = 589 × 10⁻⁹ m

Wavelength 2; λ₂ = 589.6 nm = 589.6 × 10⁻⁹ m

We are told that L₁ = L₂. Thus, we will adopt L.

Formula for the number of bright fringe shift is;

m = 2L/λ

Thus;

For Wavelength 1;

m₁ = 2L/(589 × 10⁻⁹)

For wavelength 2;

m₂ = 2L/(589.6)

Now, we are told that one wavelength must have produced one more new maxima than the other wavelength. Thus;

m₁ - m₂ = 2

Plugging in the values of m₁ and m₂ gives;

(2L/589) - (2L/589.6) = 2

divide through by 2 to get;

L[(1/589) - (1/589.6)] = 1

L(1.728 × 10⁻⁶) = 1

L = 1/(1.728 × 10⁻⁶)

L = 578790.67 nm

L = 57.88 mm

Read more at; brainly.com/question/17161594

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2 years ago

The angular velocity of a flywheel obeys the equa tion w(1) A Br2, where t is in seconds and A and B are con stants having numer

makkiz [27]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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Required

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This implies that each of $A$ and $Bt^2$ will have the same unit as $\omega_z(t)$

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Answer:

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