Answer:
The correct answer is option A: they are isotopes.
Explanation:
From atom X we know that the number of protons is 7 and the number of neutrons is 7 and from atom Z we know that the number of protons is 7 and the number of neutrons is 8.
Since the number of protons of atom X and atom Z is the same, we have that atom X and atom Z is the same element. The difference in the number of neutrons tells us that atom X and atom Z are isotopes. Remember that an isotope is one element that has atoms with different numbers of neutrons.
The mass number is given by:
Where <em>n</em> is the number of neutrons and <em>p </em>is the number of protons.
For atom X and atom Z we have:
Hence, they have a different mass number.
We know that the element with 7 protons is nitrogen. The first isotope is 
and the second isotope is 
. Both isotopes are stables (they are not radioactive).
Therefore, the correct answer is option A: they are isotopes.
I hope it helps you!
The protons and electrons are held in place on the x axis.
The proton is at x = -d and the electron is at x = +d. They are released at the same time and the only force that affects movement is the electrostatic force that is applied on both subatomic particles. According to Newton's third law, the force Fpe exerted on protons by the electron is opposite in magnitude and direction to the force Fep exerted on the electron by the proton. That is, Fpe = - Fep. According to Newton's second law, this equation can be written as
Mp * ap = -Me * ae
where Mp and Me are the masses, and ap and ae are the accelerations of the proton and the electron, respectively. Since the mass of the electron is much smaller than the mass of the proton, in order for the equation above to hold, the acceleration of the electron at that moment must be considerably larger than the acceleration of the proton at that moment. Since electrons have much greater acceleration than protons, they achieve a faster rate than protons and therefore first reach the origin.
Answer:
1.68 s
Explanation:
From newton's equation of motion,
a = (v-u)/t.................................. Equation 1
Making t the subject of the equation
t =(v-u)g............................. Equation 2
Where t = time taken for the bowling pin to reach the maximum height, v = final velocity bowling pin, u = initial velocity of the bowling pin, g = acceleration due to gravity.
Note: Taking upward to be negative and down ward to be positive,
Given: v = 0 m/s ( at the maximum height), u = 8.20 m/s, g = -9.8 m/s²
t = (0-8.20)/-9.8
t = -8.20/-9.8
t = 0.84 s.
But,
T = 2t
Where T = time taken for the bowling pin to return to the juggler's hand.
T = 2(0.84)
T = 1.68 s.
T = 1.68 s
Complete Question
Q. Two go-carts, A and B, race each other around a 1.0km track. Go-cart A travels at a constant speed of 20m/s. Go-cart B accelerates uniformly from rest at a rate of 0.333m/s^2. Which go-cart wins the race and by how much time?
Answer:
Go-cart A is faster
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
The length of the track is 
The speed of A is 
The uniform acceleration of B is 
Generally the time taken by go-cart A is mathematically represented as
=> 
=> 
Generally from kinematic equation we can evaluate the time taken by go-cart B as
given that go-cart B starts from rest u = 0 m/s
So
=> 
=> 
Comparing 
we see that 
is smaller so go-cart A is faster
Answer:
Train accaleration = 0.70 m/s^2
Explanation:
We have a pendulum (presumably simple in nature) in an accelerating train. As the train accelerates, the pendulum is going move in the opposite direction due to inertia. The force which causes this movement has the same accaleration as that of the train. This is the basis for the problem.
Start by setting up a free body diagram of all the forces in play: The gravitational force on the pendulum (mg), the force caused by the pendulum's inertial resistance to the train(F_i), and the resulting force of tension caused by the other two forces (F_r).
Next, set up your sum of forces equations/relationships. Note that the sum of vertical forces (y-direction) balance out and equal 0. While the horizontal forces add up to the total mass of the pendulum times it's accaleration; which, again, equals the train's accaleration.
After doing this, I would isolate the resulting force in the sum of vertical forces, substitute it into the horizontal force equation, and solve for the acceleration. The problem should reduce to show that the acceleration is proportional to the gravity times the tangent of the angle it makes.
I've attached my work, comment with any questions.
Side note: If you take this end result and solve for the angle, you'll see that no matter how fast the train accelerates, the pendulum will never reach a full 90°!
