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DanielleElmas [232]
4 years ago
5

I NEED HELP ASAP WILL MARK BRAINLIEST:

Physics
1 answer:
Evgen [1.6K]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

It is b for sure.

Explanation:

because they are examining urine now that's pure science.

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Explain why people have different skin colors?
stiks02 [169]

I think it because of UV rays ultra violet ray which can make their colors different

5 0
3 years ago
Please help me to solve this and give me the summary of answer
Neko [114]
Using the principle of floatation.

u = w............(a)

Upthrust of fluid is equal to the weight of the object.

Let the volume of the wood be V.

The upthrust u, is related to the volume submerged in water, and that is 1/5 of it volume, that is (1/5)V = 0.2V

Formula for upthrust, u = vdg

where v = volume of fluid displaced
d = density of fluid
g = acceleration due to gravity

weight, w = mg
where m = mass
g = acceleration due to gravity

From (a)

                     u = w

                 vdg =  mg      Cancel out g

                   vd  =  m
 
The v  is equal to 0.2V, which is the submerged volume. Notice that the small letter v is volume of fluid displaced, and capital V is the volume of the solid.

d is density of fluid which is water in this case, 1000 kg/m³

         0.2V * 1000 =  m

           200V =  m

Hence the mass of the object is  200V  kg.

But Density of solid =  Mass of solid / Volume of solid

                                 =    200V / V

                                 =    200 kg/m³

Density of solid = 200 kg/m³     
7 0
3 years ago
Two waves meet and overlap. The first wave has an amplitude of 4.6 centimeters and the second wave has an amplitude of 2 centime
vodka [1.7K]

Answer:

Explanation:

The amplitude of resultant wave as the result of  overlap of two waves depends upon the phase difference between the two.  If the waves meet crest to trough , the phase difference is 180 degree or they are in opposite phase . Hence they will destroy each other . The amplitude of resultant wave can be obtained by subtracting the amplitudes of two waves. They will interfere destructively.

Amplitude of resultant gives waves = 4.6 - 2 = 2.6 cm.

3 0
3 years ago
A kid on a trampoline has 1,000 J of potential energy when they are at the top of a jump. How much kinetic energy will the kid h
emmasim [6.3K]
C: 500 J
Hope this helped!
7 0
3 years ago
Your starship, the Aimless Wanderer,lands on the mysterious planet Mongo. As chief scientist-engineer,you make the following mea
melisa1 [442]

Answer:

m = 1.26*10²⁵ kg.

Explanation:

Assuming that the mass of the stone is much smaller than the mass of the planet, we can get the mass, applying the Universal Law of  Gravitation to both masses, as follows:

Fg = G* ms* mp / rp²

Now, if we apply Newton's 2nd Law to the mass of the stone, we can get the gravitational acceleration, as follows:

Fg = ms*a = ms*g ⇒ g = G*mp / rp²

First of all, we need to get the value of g.

Assuming that this acceleration is constant, we can appy the kinematic equations to this situation.

We know that the stone is thrown upward with an initial velocity vo = 15 m/s.

At the highest point in the trajectory, just before of changing direction, the stone comes momentarily to a stop.

At this point, applying the definition of acceleration, we can write:

vf = vo -g*t ⇒ 0 = vo -gt ⇒ g = vo/t (1)

We have the total time since the stone was thrown upwards, not the one used for the upward trajectory.

It can be showed, using the expression for the displacement (which is the same in both directions) that the time used for going up, it's the same used to go down, so the time that we need to put in (1). is just the half of the total time.

So, replacing in (1) we get the value of g, as follows:

g = 15 m/s / 4.5 s = 3.33 m/s²

Now, we can replace this value in the equation that gives us g based in the Universal Law of Gravitation, as follows:

g=G*mp / rp² (2)

Before solving for mp, however, we need to get the value of the radius of the planet.

Assuming that it's a perfect sphere, we can get this value from the value of the circumference at the planet's equator:

rp = 2*π*rp / 2*π ⇒ rp = 1.0*10⁵ km / 2*π = 15,915 km.

With this value for  rp, we can solve (2) for mp, as follows:

mp= g*rp² / G = 3.33 m/s² * (15,915 km)² / 6,67*10⁻¹¹ N.m²/kg²

mp = 1.26*10²⁵ kg.

8 0
3 years ago
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